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BEML Placement Paper : BSNL Placement Paper Technical Electronics,Electrical 22 Dec 2012

BSNL previous years solved sample placement papers,BSNL DGM,JTO Tech Assistant questions with answers,BSNL model questions for practicce,BSNL technical assistant question papers wit answers and detalied explnations

1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
(a) Paper
(b) Rubber
(c) Ceramic (Ans)
(d) Mylar

2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
(a) infrared region
(b) ultraviolet region (Ans)
(c) visible region
(d) x-ray region

3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
(a) high and high
(b) low and high
(c) high and low (Ans)
(d) low and low

4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress
(a) odd harmonics
(b) even harmonics
(c) fundamental component (Ans)
(d) dc component

5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) mutual inductance between two coils only
(b) self inductances of the two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (Ans)
(d) none

6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
(a) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor
(b) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
(c) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates. (Ans)
(d) The poynting vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.

7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
(a) Polarization
(b) Conductivity (Ans)
(c) Structural homogeneties
(d) Ionization

8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon
(a) Boron
(b) Indium
(c) Germanium
(d) Antimony (Ans)

9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, bruses and relays must possess
(a) high -thermal conductivity and high melting point (Ans)
(b) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
(c) High thermal conductivity and low melting point
(d) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point

10. An SCR can only be turned off via it,s
(a) cathode
(b) anode (Ans)
(c) gates
(d) none

11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to
(a) increase the recombination rate
(b) reduce the recombination rate (Ans)
(c) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
(d) make silicon semi-metal

12. With n nodes and b branches a network will have
(a) (b+n) links
(b) b-n+1 links (Ans)
(c) b-n-1 links
(d) b+n+1 links

13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
(a) 7
(b) 9 (Ans)
(c) 10
(d) 45

14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
(a) always positive
(b) always negative (Ans)
(c) sometime positive, sometime negative
(d) numerically less than its kinetic energy.

15. A deplition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no
(a) channel
(b) gate
(c) P-N junctions (Ans)
(d) Substrate

16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the wire round strain gauge is that
(a) it is more sensitive (Ans)
(b) it is more linear
(c) it is less temperature dependent
(d) it,s cost is low

17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
(a) thermally generated electrons and holes
(b) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
(c) migration of minority carriers across the junction (Ans)
(d) flow of drift current

18. when an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
(a) recombine with holes in the base
(b) recombine in the emitter itself
(c) pass through the base to the collector (Ans)
(d) are stopped by the junction barrier

19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode at µo bias is
(a) 0.5 volt
(b) 0.3 volt
(c) 0.7 volt (Ans)
(d) 1.1 volt

20. A UJT can
(a) be triggered by any one of it,s three terminals
(b) not be triggered
(c) be triggered by two of its three terminal only (Ans)
(d) be triggered by all of its terminals only.

21. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radium r and uniform charge density in vacuum is

22. Maxwells divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by


23. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 1 at frequency f and if it,s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then its radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
(a) R/2 ohms
(b) R ohms
(c) 2R ohms
(d) 4R ohms (Ans)

24. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
(a) TE111 and TM111
(b) TE011 and TM011
(c) TE022 and TM111
(d) TE111 and TM011 (Ans)

25. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then its efficiency will be nearly
(a) 0.19
(b) 0.81 (Ans)
(c) 0.97
(d) 1.19

26. The transformer utilization factor of full wave bridge rectifier is
(a) 0.812
(b) 0.286 (Ans)
(c) 0.693
(d) 0.782

27. When a dominant mode wage guide not terminated in its characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if d is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
(a) d = 1.5 cm (Ans)
(b) d is less than 1.5 cm
(c) d is greater than 1.5 cm
(d) d= 3cm

28. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
(a) an output power which is one-quarter of the input power (Ans)
(b) an output power which is one-half of the input power
(c) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
(d) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power

29. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer
(a) the terminals are kept shorted
(b) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals (Ans)
(c) the terminals are kept open circuited
(d) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals

30. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. which of the following values represent full series arm R1 and shunt arm R2?
1. R1 = 147 Ω 2. R1 = 153 Ω
3. R1 = 1.5Ω 4. R2 = 3750 Ω
(a) 1 and 3 (Ans)
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4

31. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294 μH/m and capacitance 62pF/m is
(a) 49 Ω
(b) 60 Ω
(c) 70 Ω (Ans)
(d) 140 Ω

32. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
(a) 2
(b) 3 (Ans)
(c) 4
(d) 5

33. Consider the following statement of a 2-port network
(1) Z11 = Z22 (2) h12 = h21
(3) Y12 = -Y21 (4) BC - AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 4 alone is correct (Ans)

34. As a network contain only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
(a) will become half
(b) will remain unchanged
(c) will become double (Ans)
(d) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known.

35. A iron cored choke is a
(a) A Linear and active device
(b) Non linear and passive device (Ans)
(c) Active device only
(d) Linear device only

36. Poynting vector wattmeter is based on
(a) Seebeck effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Induction effect (Ans)
(d) Hall effect

37. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense?
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Piezoelectric pick-up
(c) Photo voltaic cell
(d) LCD (Ans)

38. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
(a) Converter system (Ans)
(b) Inverter
(c) Chopper
(d) Thyristor

39. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 Watt then the efficiency of the antenna is
(a) 0.89159 %
(b) 8.9159 %
(c) 89.159 % (Ans)
(d) 891.59 %

40. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
(a) 5 KHz
(b) 15 KHz
(c) 75 KHz (Ans)
(d) 200 KHz

BEML Placement Paper : BHEL Placement Paper Latest 2012-2013

BHEL Latest Computer Science Papers

1. Which one of the following is provided by a data dictionary ?
(A) User data
(B) Functional data
(C) Database structure data
(D) Sorted data

2. Which one of the following is a direct benefit of databse normalization ?
(A) higher query processing efficiency
(B) smaller number of tables
(C) reduced I/O for most queries
(D) reduced data redundancy

3. What is the result of the following SQL statement ?SELECT A.Employee_Name, B.Spouse_NameFROM Employee A LEFT OUTER JOIN Spouse BON A. Employee_ID = B.Employee_ID
(A) A list of all employee’s names, including the name of their spouse if they have one
(B) A list of all employees that have spouses, with spouse names included in the list
(C) A list of employee’s spouses
(D) Two lists : One list of employees, the other of spouses.

4. The ability to modify the conceptual schema without causing any change to the application program is known as :
(A) Physical data independence
(B) Logical data independence
(C) External data independence
(D) Static data

5. A field or a combination of fields that has a unique value is called :
(A) Secondary key
(B) Foreign key
(C) Primary key
(D) Alternate key

6. Relational operator that yields all values from all rows in a table is known as
(A) difference
(B) product
(C) select
(D) project

7. Referential integrity controls relationships between :
(A) attributes in a table
(B) operations of an object
(C) instances of a class
(D) tables in a database.

8. What will be suitable criteria that should be entered for a query to search for Employee
Names beginning with M ?
(A) Start with M
(B) Like M
(C) Like ‘M?’
(D) Like ‘M*’

9. What rows will this select statement return ?
SELECT * FROM products WHERE ordernumber > = 1000
(A) All rows in the products table whose order number is greater than or equal to 1000
(B) All rows in the products table whose order number is less than or equal to 1000
(C) The first 1000 rows of the product table
(D) All rows in the products table whose order number is greater than 1000

10. A television broadcast is an example of ______transmission.
(A) Simplex
(B) half-duplex
(C) full-duplex
(D) automatic
11. ______ is the protocol suite for the Internet which we use presently :
(A) TCP/IP
(B) NCP
(C) UNIX
(D) ACM
12. _______ switching is well suited for voice communication while______ switching is better suited for data and other non-voice communication.
(A) Message; circuit
(B) Circuit; message
(C) Packet; circuit
(D) Circuit; packet

13. Forty-five physical channels link________devices arranged in a mesh topology.
(A) NINE (9)
(B) TEN (10)
(C) FORTY (40)
(D) FORTY-FIVE (45)

14. The most frequently used UTP connector is _______ .
(A) category 5 connector
(B) EIA 232
(C) RJ45
(D) JR45

15. The natural mask for class C IP address is _______ .
(A) 255.255.255.0
(B) 255.255.0.0
(C) 255.0.0.0
(D) 255.255.255.255

16. The Internet began as an experimental network called
(A) Intranet
(B) ARPANET
(C) ARPA
(D) DoDNET

17. Clock speed is measured in
(A) Bits per second
(B) Baud
(C) Bytes
(D) Hertz

18. Cache memory enhances
(A) Memory capacity
(B) Memory access time
(C) Secondary storage capacity
(D) Secondary storage access time
19. A user complains that he has created a shell script ‘myuse’ that will report his usage of disk space by a directory in UNIX, but when he executes the script he only receives the message : myuse : cannot execute. What is
the probable cause of the error described above ?
(A) The file ‘myuse’ contains syntax errors
(B) The file ‘myuse’ cannot be located because the user has not set his PATH properly
(C) The user does not have permission to read his directory
(D) The file mode for the owner of ‘myuse’ is not executable.

20. Three players A, B, C are in a race. A is twice as likely to win as B and B is twice as likely to win as C. Then the probability that B wins =
(A) 1/2
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/3
(D) 2/7
Answers
1 C 2 D 3 A 4 B 5 C 6 X 7 D 8 X 9 A 10 A 11 A 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 B 19 D 20
21. In following Java code snippet, what will be the output of following :
int var 1 = 5, var 2 = 7;
System.out.println(“Result=” + var l * var 3);
(A) Result = 35
(B) Result = 57
(C) Result = 3
(D) Error

22. Consider the following segment of a Java program,
int num, alpha = 10;
num = 4;
switch (num)
{
case 3 : alpha++; break;
case 4 :
case 6 : alpha = alpha + 3;
case 8 : alpha = alpha + 4; break;
default : alpha = alpha + 5;
}
System.out.println (alpha);

What will the output be when the above segment is executed as a program ?
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 17
(D) 18

23. The region of memory sufficiently large to hold all pixels of the display is called a
(A) Frame buffer
(B) RAM
(C) ROM
(D) Cache Memory

24. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Bitmap images ?
(A) They are based on lines and curves
(B) They are best for real-world images like Photography and Painted pictures
(C) They have a small data size
(D) One does not need to compress the file for transferring.

25. ………… is a process model used to show the flow of data through a system and the work or processing performed by the system :
(A) Document Flow Diagram
(B) Data Flow Diagram
(C) Entity Relationship Diagram
(D) Use Case Diagram.

26. Consider the following two relations :
A (Students) B
St_Id Name Address St_Id Name Address
1000000004 Ratan Mumbai 1000000001 Mahesh Gangtok
1000000001 Mahesh Gangtok 1000000002 Samir Indore
1000000008 Babita Delhi 1000000004 Ratan Mumbai
1000000002 Samir Indore 1000000008 Babita Delhi
Applying a certain SQL statement to relation A gives relation B. Which of the following statements could this SQL statement be ?
(A) SELECT * FROM Students ORDER BY St_Id;
(B) SELECT * FROM Students ORDER BY Name;
(C) SELECT * FROM Students ORDER BY St_Id DESC;
(D) SELECT * FROM Students ORDER BY Name DESC;

27. Consider the code snippet given below : & lt H1 & gt Hello BIT & lt H1 & gt Which of the following is correct in relation to the above code snippet ?
(A) Hello BIT is displayed as the output with H1 font.
(B) Hello BIT ; is displayed as the output with H1 font.
(C) ; is displayed as the output with default font.
(D)Hellow BIT is displayed as the output.

28. When you are creating a structure in C/C++, you need to use the keyword
(A) structure
(B) object
(C) struct
(D) record

29. 54__7 = 5. Which arithmetic operator can replace the blank to make the statement correct ?
(A) –
(B) /
(C) %
(D) *

30. What is the output of the following code in C ?
for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++)
{cout << i% 2 << ,, ";}
(A) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(B) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18
(C) 10101010101
(D) 10 10 10 10 10

31. In C++, if a catch statement is written to catch exception objects of a base class type, it can also catch all ______ derived from that base class.
(A) Exceptions for objects
(B) Objects of classes
(C) Arguments
(D) Errors

32. The design of classes in a way that hides the details of implementation from the user is known as :
(A) Encapsulation
(B) Information Hiding
(C) Data Abstraction
(D) Reusability

33. Can two classes contain member functions with the same name ?
(A) No.
(B) Yes, but only if the two classes have the same name
(C) Yes, but only if the main program does not declare both kinds
(D) Yes, this is always allowed.

34. What is printed when the following sample code of C is executed ?
char *ptr;
char my String = “abcdefghijklmnop”;
ptr = myString;
printf (“ptr=%s/n”, ptr+5);
printf (“ptr = %s”, ptr);
(A) ptr = fghijklmnop
(B) ptr = fghijklmnopptr = fghijklmnop ptr = abcdefghijklmnop
(C) ptr = efghijklmnop
(D) ptr = efghijklmnopptr = abcdefghijklmnop ptr = efghijklmnop

35. How many times will the “while” body be executed in the sampe code above ?
int ch = 10;
int ci = 15;
while (ch > ci)
{
cout << ch << endl ;
++ ci; — ch ;
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

36. What standard include file is needed to use the exit ( ) function ?
(A) None
(B) Stdlib.h
(C) stdio.h
(D) std.h

37. The processing speed of different computers is compared using :
(A) RPM
(B) GHz
(C) MIPS
(D) CPS

38. Who is associated with the development of ‘C’ language ?
(A) Niklaus Wirth
(B) Donald Knuth
(C) Dennis M Ritchie
(D) Charles Babbage.

39. Boolean expression for NAND gate with two inputs x and y can be written as :
(A) x – y
(B) x + y
(C) x + y
(D) xy + xy

40. Two’s complement of 1011.01 is :
(A) 0100.10
(B) 0100.11
(C) 1011.10
(D) 0100.01

41. A friend function can be used to :
(A) avoid arguments between classes
(B) allow access to classes whose source code is unavailable
(C) allow one class to access an unrelated class
(D) increases the versatility of an overload operator

42. In TCP, which layer is not present ?
(A) physical layer
(B) data link layer
(C) transport layer
(D) session layer

43. The digit F in Hexadecimal system is equivalent to ________ in decimal system.
(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 8

44. The output of a______gate is only 1 when all of its inputs are 1 :
(A) NOR
(B) XOR
(C) AND
(D) NOT

45. 110012—100012 =
(A) 10000 (
B) 01000
(C) 00100
(D) 00001

46. Which is correct :
(A) A.A=0
(B) A+1=A
(C) A+A=A’
(D) A’.A’ = 0

47. The basic storage element in a digital system is
(A) flip flop
(B) counter
(C) multiplexer
(D) encoder

48. AB + AB’ =
(A) A
(B) B
(C) 1
(D) 0

49. In UNIX, which command is used to sort the lines of data in a file in reverse order
(A) sort
(B) sh
(C) st
(D) sort –r

50. The commonly used UNIX commands like date, ls, cat etc. are stored in
(A) /dev directory
(B) /bin directory
(C) /tmp directory
(D) /unix directory
Answers
D 21 X 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 A 27 X 28 C 29 C 30 X 31 A 32 A 33 D 34 B 35 A 36 B 37 C 38 C 39 C 40 B 41 C 42 D 43 B 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 A 48 A 49 D 50 B

BEML Placement Paper : BHEL Placement Paper Testpaper Latest (2012-2013)

BHEL Electrical Written Test: Questions

1.Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initiallyrelaxed control system-
a) (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
b) (e-2t +5) (u(t))
c) V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
d) V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)

2.Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
a) Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
b) Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
c) Laplace transform of system impulse response.

3. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codesgiven below. Codesa.)
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 4

4. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at) The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a) 150 samples per second
b) 200 samples per second
c) 300 samples per second
d) 350 samples per second

5.In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy mustlie between – MHz.
a) 34 and 106
b) 52. And 88
c) 106 and 142
d) 34 and 142

6.Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar

7.The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing

8.Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.

9.In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

10.Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b) increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

11.In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

12.When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then theload matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c.)A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above

13.As compared to analog multimeters, digital Multimeters,s are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.

14.When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the followinginstruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter

15.Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off

16.The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.) Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.) Transformer coupling

17.A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through itexceeds a critical value

18.When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pFcapacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c) 16.01pF
d) 20.01pF

19.The Q of a radio coil –
a) is independent of frequency
b) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

20.When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxialline of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is -
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
21.The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

22.Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C

23.RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.) Class ,A,
b.) Class ,b,
c.) Class ,C,
d.) None
24.The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFEThas to be
a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero

26. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If itsspeed is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m

27. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed torevolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.

28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2

29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2

30. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximumwhen ? is . =45

31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds withuniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.

32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from thewall. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains inequilibrium. = 0.21

33. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5×105 joules. Themass of the car will be. =3000kg.

34. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) andthe central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR

35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends.The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8.

36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2

37. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and Bat 300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B

38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel andattached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.

39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.

40. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight linenor parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.

41. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel norintersecting, use: = Spiral gear.

42. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, thecentre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made bygear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.

43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary criticalspeed.

44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.

45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.

46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.

47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel

48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm
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