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EIL Placement Paper : EIL Placement Paper CSE,latest 2012-2013

EIL Technical Questions For CSE,EIL Latest CSE Question papers,EIL Solved CSE Question papers,EIL Previous CSE Questions and Answers

1 Which of the following is/are storage class
A. Automatic
B. Static
C. Allocated
D. All of Above
Ans: D

2 What will the output of following code
{
int x = 10, y = 15;
x = x++;
y = ++y;
printf(“%d, %d \n”, x, y);
}
A. 10, 15
B. 10, 16
C. 11, 16
D. 11, 15
Ans:C

3 NULL Pointer can be used as
A. To stop indirection in a recursive data structure
B. As an error value
C. As a sentinel Value
D. All of Above
Ans:D

4 Which one of the following is not the advantages of functions?
A. Debugging is easier
B. Testing is easier
C. Recursive call is possible
D. It consumes low disk space
Ans:D

5 What is the result of the following statement?
x = y = z = 0;
A. x = 0, y = Null, z = Null
B. x = 0, y = 0, z = 0
C. x = 0, y = 1, z = 2
D. the statement is incorrect
Ans:B

6 What is the result of the following statement?
X = 10;
y = ++x;

A. x = 10, y = 10
B. x = 10, y = 11
C. x = 11, y = 10
D. x = 11, y = 11
Ans:D

7 Which of the following statement creates infinite loop?
A. for ( ; ; )
B. while ( ; ; )
C. when ( ; ; )
D. if( ; ; )
Ans:A

8 The use of “break” Statement
A. to terminate a case in the switch statement
B. to force immediate termination of a loop
C. Both A & B
D. Only A
Ans:C

9 to use the function tolower(), which of the following header file should include
A. string.h
B. conio.h
C. ctype.h
D. Don’t need any header file
Ans: C

10 What is the function overloading?
A. Calling a function from another function
B. Having more than one functions of same name
C. Calling a function from itself
D. There is no such term in C/C++
Ans:B

11.$x=array("aaa","ttt","www","ttt","yyy","tttt");
$y=array_count_values($x);
echo $y[ttt];
?>
A.2
B.3
C.1
D.4
Ans: A

12.How do you get information from a form that is submitted using the "get" method?
A.$_GET[];
B.Request.Form;
C.Request.QueryString;
D.$_POST[];
Ans:A

13.Full form of PHP
A.PreHypertextProcessor
B.HypertextPreprocessor
C.Hypertext Postprocessor
D.PostHypertextProcessor
Ans:C

14.$x=array(1,3,2,3,7,8,9,7,3);
$y=array_count_values($x);
echo $y[8];
?>
A.43
B.1
C.8
D.6
Ans:B

15.PHP variables are
A.Multitype variables
B.Double type variables
C.Single type variable
D.Trible type variables
Ans: A

16.Father of PHP?
A.Larry Wall
B.Rasmus Lerdorf
C.James Gosling
D.Guido Van Rossum
Ans:B

17.The PHP syntax is most similar to:
A.PERL and C
B.Java script
C.VB Script
D.Visual Basic
Ans:A

18.Which of the following extensions suggest that the file is a backup copy
A.Bak
B.Bas
C.Com
D.Txt
Ans: A

19.Each IP packet must contain
A.Only Source address
B.Only Destination address
C.Source and Destination address
D.Source or Destination address
Ans:C

20.Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model?
A.Appliation layer
B.Transport layer
C.Network layer
D.Datalink layer
Ans:D

21. _______ provides a connection-oriented reliable service for sending messages
A.TCP
B.IP
C.UDP
D.All of the above
Ans:A

22.Which layers of the OSI model are host-to-host layers?
A.Transport, Session, Persentation, Application
B.Network, Transport, Session, Presentation
C.Datalink, Network, Transport, Session
D.Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport
Ans:A

23.Which of the following IP address class is Multicast
A.Class A
B.Class B
C.Class C
D.Class D
Ans:D

24.Which of the following is correct regarding Class B Address of IP address
A.Network bit – 14, Host bit – 16
B.Network bit – 16, Host bit – 14
C.Network bit – 18, Host bit – 16
D.Network bit – 12, Host bit – 14
Ans:A

25.The last address of IP address represents
A. Unicast address
B. Network address
C. Broadcast address
D. None of above
Ans:C

26.How many bits are there in the Ethernet address?
A.64 bits
B.48 bits
C.32 bits
D.16 bits
Ans:B

27.How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?
A.4 layers
B.5 layers
C.6 layers
D.7 layers
Ans:A
28.Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to-end layer?
A.Presentation layer
B.Network layer
C.Session layer
D.Transport layer
Ans:D

29.A network that requires human intervention of route signals is called a ?
A.Bus network
B.Ring netwkork
C.Star network
D.T-switched network
Ans:D

30.Adaptive or dynamic directory used in packet routing changes ?

A.within each user session
B.with each user session
C.at system generation times only
D.Both A and B
Ans:A

31.Which of the following signal is not standard RS-232-C signal ?

A.VDR
B.RTS
C.CTS
D.DSR
Ans:A

32.In a DMA write operation the data is transferred
A.from I/O to memory.
B.from memory to I/O.
C.from memory to memory.
D.from I/O to I/O.
Ans:A

33.Number of the times the instruction sequence below will loop before coming out of
loop is
MOV AL, 00h
A1:INC AL
JNZ A1
A.00
B.01
C.255
D.256
Ans:D

34.Direction flag is used with
A.String instructions.
B.Stack instructions.
C.Arithmetic instructions.
D.Branch instructions.
Ans:A

35.LOCK prefix is used most often
A.during normal execution.
B.during DMA accesses
C.during interrupt servicing.
D.during memory accesses.
Ans:C

36.8251 is a
A.UART
B.USART
C.Programmable Interrupt controller
D.Programmable interval timer/counter
Ans:B

37.Which interrupt has the highest priority?
A.INTR
B.TRAP
C.RST6.5
Ans: C

38.Which stack is used in 8085?
A.FIFO
B.LIFO
C.FILO
Ans:B

39.Using DeMorgan,s Theorem we can convert any AND-OR structure into

A.NAND-NAND
B.OR-NAND
C.NAND-NOR
D.NOR-NAND
Ans:A

40.Which of the following file format supports in Windows 7?
A) NTFS
B) BSD
C) EXT
D) All of the above
Ans:A

41.The Primary job of the operating system is
A) Manage Commands
B) Manage Users
C) Manage Programs
D) Manage Resources
Ans:D

42.What is the meaning of “Hibernate” in Windows XP/Windows 7?
A) Restart the Computer in safe mode
B) Restart the Computer in hibernate mode
C) Shutdown the Computer terminating all the running applications
D) Shutdown the Computer without closing the running applications
Ans:D

43.Who is called a supervisor of computer activity?
A) Memory
B) Operating System
C) I/O Devices
D) Control Unit
Ans:B

44.Virtual Memory is
A) Extremely Large Main memory
B) Extremely Large Secondary memory
C) An illusion of extremely large main memory
D) An illusion of extremely large secondary memory
Ans:C

45.Operating System manages
A) Memory
B) Processor
C) I/O devices
D) All of the above
Ans:D

46.What should be the first step while OS upgrading?
A) Delete old Operating System
B) Backup old Operating System
C) Backup Critical Data
D) Format Hard Disks
Ans:C

47.Unix Operating System is an
A) Multi User Operating System
B) Time Sharing Operating System
C) Multi Tasking Operating System
D) All the Above
Ans:D

48.In which type of the following OS, the response time is very crucial.
A) Network Operating System
B) Real Time Operating System
C) Batch Operating System
D) Unix Operating System
Ans:B

49.The file system “NTFS” stands for
A) New Type File System
B) Never Terminated File System
C) New Technology File System
D) Non Terminated File System
Ans: C

50.ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion.
A.digital-to-digital
B.digital-to-analog
C.analog-to-analog
D.analog-to-digital
Ans:B

51.AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.
A.digital-to-digital
B.digital-to-analog
C.analog-to-analog
D.analog-to-digital
Ans:C

52.In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.
A.frequency and amplitude
B.phase and frequency
C.amplitude and phase
D.none of the above
Ans:C

53.Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________.
A.ASK and FSK
B.ASK and PSK
C.PSK and FSK
D.none of the above
Ans:B

54.The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots.
A.2
B.1
C.0
D.none of the above
Ans:A

55.Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______.

A.low-pass
B.band-pass
C.either (a) or (b)
D.neither (a) nor (b)
Ans:B

56.A phase-locked loop (PLL) is a feedback circuit consisting of a
A.phase detector
B.low-pass filter.
C.VCO.
D.all of the above
Ans:D

57.Amplitude modulation is a ________ process.
A.multiplication
B.division
C.sum/difference
D.[NIL]
Ans:A

58.What does VCO stand for?
A.Visually-Controlled Organization
B.Voltage-Controlled Oscillator
C.Voltage-Centered Oscilloscope
Ans:B

59.The intermediate frequency in a standard AM receiver is
A.455 Hz.
B.455 kHz.
C.4.55 MHz.
D.none of the above
Ans:B

60.Light may be propagated along a fiber-optic cable in which of the following modes?
A.multimode step index
B.single-mode step index
C.multimode graded index
D.all of the above
Ans:D

EIL Placement Paper : EIL Placement Paper Mechanical Engineering Technical Questions 2012

EIL free sample palcement papers,EIL previous years question papers,EIL (Engineers India Limited) Latest Technical Questions with Answers for 2012 Management Trainee Recruitment| Questions from Mechanical/EEE/EC/CSE/ and General Aptitude Questions,Engineeers India Limited(EIL) Latest Technical Questions for new Management Trainee Exam -2012,EIL Latest free solved sample placement papers,EIL question papers last 10 years Previous question papers

1.A feeler gauge is used to check
a. Radius
b. Screw pitch
c. Surface roughness
d. Unsymmetrical shape
e. Thickness of clearance
Ans:e

2. Which one of the following methods produces gear by generating process
a. Hobbing
b. Casting
c. Punching
d. Milling
e. Broaching
Ans: a
3. An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary,
the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascal,s on the surface of top plate is

a) 0.651 x 10-3
b) 0.651
c) 6.51
c) 0.651 x 103

Answer : (B)

4. During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.

All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A) 91.53%
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07%
D) 61.22%

Answer : (C)
5. In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ,q, is expressed as

A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)

Answer : (A)

6.During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be

A) circular Interpolation — clockwise
B) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise
C) linear Interpolation
D) rapid feed

Answer : (A)

7.3 In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000+0.040mm mate with holes of size 25.000+0.020 mm. The maximum possible clearance in the assembly will be

A) 10 microns
B) 20 microns
C) 30 microns
D) 60 microns

Answer : (D)

8.In PERT analysis a critical activity has

A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost

Answer : (B)
9.11 The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at

A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 106 cycles
D) 109 cycles

Answer : (C)
10. The property of a material which enable it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as
a. Elasticity
b. Endurance
c. Strength
d. Toughness
e. Resilience
Ans:d

11. Spring index is
a. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
b. Load required to produce unit deflection
c. Its capability of storing energy
d. Indication of quality of spring
e. Nothing
Ans:a

12. Metal in machining operation is removed by
a. Tearing chips
b. Distortion of metal
c. Shearing the metal across a zone
d. Cutting the metal across a zone
e. Pushing the metal with tool
Ans:c

13.Where does mixing of fuel and air takeplace in case of diesel engine ?
a. Injection pump
b. Injector
c. Engine cylinder
d. Inlet manifold.


14.Which one of the following is NOT a necessary assumption for the air-standard Otto cycle?

1)All processes are both internally as well as externally reversible.
2)Intake and exhaust processes are constant volume heat rejection processes.
3)The combustion process is a constant volume heat addition process.
4)The working fluid is an ideal gas with constant specific heats.

15.Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by
1)milling
2)shaping with rack cutter
3)shaping with pinion cutter
4)hobbing
.
16.A solid circular shaft of diameter 100 mm is subjected to an axial stress of 50 MPa. It is further subjected to a torque of 10 kNm. The maximum principal stress experienced on the shaft is closest to

a)41 MPa
b)82 MPa
c)164 MPa
d)204 MPa
.
17.A uniform rigid rod of mass m = 1 kg and length L = 1 m is hinged at its centre and laterally supported at one end by a spring of spring constant k = 300 N/m. The natural frequency ?n in rad/s is

a)10
b)20
c)30
d)40
18.The torque transmitted by a clutch is given by
a) T = μWR
b) T = μ/WR
c) T = μW/R
d) T = 1/μWR

19.Propeller shaft is used for the purpose of
a) transmitting the drive from the transmission to the bevel pinion of the final drive
b) transmitting the drive from the crankshaft to the road wheels
c) transmitting the drive from the transmission to the road wheels
d) transmitting the drive from the crankshaft to the bevel pinion of the final drive

20.Double declutching is used for the engagement of gears in
a) sliding mesh type of gear box
b) constant mesh type of gear box
c) synchromesh type of gear box
d) none of the above


Practice! More Sample Placement Questions


21.The number of arms provided to the Cross of the Hook’s joint is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

22.The number of spring loaded balls provided circumferentially in a synchromesh gear box is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

23. Toughness of a material is equal to area under ____________ part of the stress-strain curve.
(a) Elastic
(b) Plastic
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans:c

24. True stress-strain curve need to be corrected after
(a) Elastic limit
(b) Yield limit
(c) Tensile strength
(d) no need to correct
Ans:c

25. Following condition represents onset of necking
(a) εu = n
(b) εu = 1-n
(c) εu = 1+n
(d) εu = ln (1+n)
Ans:a

26. As compared with conventional stress-strain curve, the true stress-strain curve is
(a) Above and right
(b) Below and right
(c) Above and left
(d) Below and left
Ans:c

27. According to distortion-energy criterion, yielding occurs when
(a) Distortion energy reaches a critical value
(b) Second invariant of the stress deviator exceeded some critical value
(c) Octahedral shear stress reaches a critical value
(d) All
Ans:d
28. von Mises and Tresca criteria give different yield stress for
(a) Uni-axial stress
(b) Balanced bi-axial stress
(c) Pure shear stress
(d) All
Ans:c

29. Plastic deformation results from the following
(a) Slip
(b) Twinning
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans:c

30. Time dependent recoverable deformation under load is called ____________ deformation.
(a) Elastic
(b) Anelastic
(c) Elastic after-effect
(d) Visco-elastic
Ans:b

31.A spur gear has a module of 3 mm, number of teeth 16, a face width of 36 mm and a pressure angle of 20°. It is transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/s. Taking a velocity factor of 1.5, and a form factor of 0.3,
the stress in the gear tooth is about

a)32 MPa
b)46 MPa
c)58 MPa
d)70 MPa

32. Which type of turbine is used in tydel power generation:
a) Kaplan
b) Fransis
c) Pelton Wheel type
d) Reverse type.

33.Which of the following is an example of lever ?
a)A pair of scissors
b)crow bar
c)fire tong
d)all of the above

34.Which of the following forms the basis of rigid bodies and strength of materials ?

a)any of these
b)centre of gravity
c)moment of inertia
d)centroid

35.What is the velocity ratio of third system of pulleys ?
a)2^n
b)2^(n-1)
c)2^n - 1
d)2^n +1

36........... belts have the best pulling capacity.

a)Leather
b)Rubber
c)Textile
d)Balata

37.Linear law of machines is given by the relation …
a)P=mW – C
b)P=mW + C
c)P=m^2W + C
d)P=mW^2 + C

38.A mechanism which enables the rotary motion of one shaft to another shaft at the same axis is called
a) gear box
b) differential
c) clutch
d) flywheel

39.In a vehicle, which is going straight ahead at N rpm, if the left wheel rotates forward at n rpm, then the resultant speed of the right wheel will be
a) N+n
b) N-n
c) N/n
d) Nn

40.The permanent reduction provided by the final drive in heavy vehicle is
a) 4:1
b) 6:1
c) 8:1
d) 10:1

EIL Placement Paper : EIL Placement Paper Delhi 14 July 2012

EIL Sample Paper Management trainee solved question papers,EIL Sample Placement Paper 2012 with 150 Questions,100 technical questions and 50 non-technical Questions, previously asked question paper,EIL aptitude reasoning, general awareness solved questions,EIL Latest selection procedure,EIL 2010,2011, 2012-2013 written test examination question with answers,EIL management trainees, graduate trainees, software engineers, Mechanical Engineers question with solutions


EIL Section - I General awareness questions

Hello everyone. I am Ayush. Today i gave EIL mechanical engg. paper.

The question paper was consisted of 150 questions : 100 technical + 50 Non-technical.

The non tech part was average including general awareness, english with passages, synonyms, articles, and aptitude. One can do good in this section if he/she is an avg student. But to be sure to clear the cutoff u need to work little bit hard.


The technical part was much easier than i expected. The questions were from all the parts viz. RAC, SOM, IC Engines, TOM, HT, Metallurgy, Production, Industrial, etc. You can really score good marks with ease , needed that you are clear with your basics. It is really not difficult. I am sharing some of the questions(which i have remembered) with u :



1 : What is cryogenics ?



2 : Heat transfer takes place according to which law ?



3 : What will happen if petrol is used in a diesel engine ?

a) knocking will increse

b) black smoke will appear

c) low power

d) less efficiency

Ans : (a) (i thnik)



4 : Lewis equtn is used to calculate ?

a) tensile strength

b) compressive bending strength

c) ...

d)...



5: Which gear doen not produce axial thrust ?

a) helical gear

b) spiral gear

c) bevel gear

d) worm gear



6 : Effect of sensible cooling on relaive humidity ?

Ans : It increases.



7 : Condensation ov water vapour in moist air occurs at ?

Ans : DPT.



8 : Brakes used in cars ?

a) Mechanical system

B) Hydraulic system

C) ..

D)..



9 : Thermal diffusivity depends on ?

a) thermal conductivity

b) specific heat

c) density of the material

d) all of the above

Ans : (d)

EIL Placement Paper : EIL Placement Paper Civil Engineering questions 14 July 2012

EIL upcoming management trainee written test examination on July 15th 2012 Civil Engineering sample placement papers,EIL Technical Questions For Civil Engineering,Mechanical engineering, Electronics and electrical questions with answers, EIL Latest Civil Engineering Question papers,EIL aptitude,reasoning.verbal ability,general awaress solved question papers,EIL previous years model questions paper with answers,EIL stream wise or branch wise question with solutions,All IT TCS,Infosys,wipro,....Non-IT Bhel,Bel,EIL,ECILSAIL......Banks IDBI,SBT,SBI,IBPS PO cwe,clerical,specialists officers solved question papers....

EIL civil enginnering question with answers

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Bricks lose their strength by 25% when soaked in water.
2. Minimum crushing strength of brick in buildings should be 35 kg/cm
3. The size of modular type bricks is 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm including mortar thickness.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: D

2. The correct statement in respect of a centrifugal pump is
A The discharge varies in direct proportion to speed as also square of the diameter
B. The head varies as the square of the speed as also of the square of the diameter
C. The discharge varies in inverse proportion to speed as also the cube of the diameter
D. The power varies as the head and square of the diameter.
Ans: B

3. Consider the following statements about theodolites:
1. Transit theodolite is a theodolite in which the telescope can be transited.
2. EDMI is a theodolite fitted with a micrometer for measurements.
3. A double reading theodolite is one in which diametrically opposite segments of the graduated circle are brought into view and the readings are averaged.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Ans: A

4. Consider the following statements:
1. Sensitivity of a natural soil deposit cannot be less than 1.0.
2. A saturated loose sand deposit liquefies when water flows through it in upward direction under critical hydraulic gradient.
3. A quick clay has a very high sensitivity.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only
Ans: A

5. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
A. inverse square of the diameter
B. inverse of the diameter
C. first power of its diameter
D. inverse of the fluid viscosity
Ans: D

6. Consider the following statements
1. At shrinkage, limit, th soil remains fully saturated.
2. The shear strength of all soils at liquid limit is the same.
3. The shear strength of all soils at plastic limit is the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Ans: A

7. Refraction error is the least in case of
A. Stadia tacheometry
B. Tangential tacheómetry
C. Subtense bar tacheometry
D. Omnimeters
Ans:C

8. In all reaction maximum efficiency is obtained if the
A. Guide vane angle is 90°
B. Blade angle is 90° at the inlet
C. Blade angle is 90° at the outlet
D. Angle of the absolute velocity vector at the outlet is 90°
Ans: D

9. . Liquefaction of foundation soil during an earthquake shall not be the reason for cracking of
A. only floors is the building
B. walls and roof in the building
C. beams and columns in the building
D. only balcony in the building
Ans: D

10. Consider the following statements:
1. Drain values are provided at elevated, or higher, points to remove accumulated air.
2. Reflux valve allows flow in one direction only.
3. Drain valves are provided at low points to remove silt and other deposits.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Ans: C

11. Match List-I with List-TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
(Type of survey)
A. Traffic volume study
B. Speed and delay study
C. Spot-speed study
D. Multiple character Studies
List II (Method lintrurnent)
1. Works spotinterview method
2. Doppler radar
3. Floating car method
4. Automatic vehicle counter and classifier
5.. Electronic detector
Code:
A B C D
A. 5 3 2 4
B. 1 3 2 5
C. 5 2 3 4
D. 1 2 4 3
Ans: A

12. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum value of group index for a soil be taken as zero.
2. The maximum possible value of group index for a soil is twenty.
Which of the above staternent is/are correct?
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A

13. A light-house is visible just above the horizon at a certain station at the sea level. Distance between the station and the light house is 60 km. The height of the light house is
A. 243.5 m
B. 4.0 M
C. 287.4 m
D 5.4 m
Ans: A

14. Consider the following statements:
The disadvantages of employing steel pipes in conveyance and distribution of water are, they
1. cannot withstand high negative pressures or vacuums that may be created in them, especially the combined effects of vacuum and external loads of backfill and traffic .
2. are easily affected by acidic or alkaline waters and even atmospheric agencies may produce adverse effects on them.
3. Cannot be used for high pressures.(Generally not used for pressure above 7kg/cm)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Ans: B

15. Consider the following statements:
The moment of momentum equation in fluid dynamies can be used
1. To find the torque exerted on sprinklers by water.
2. To determine the force in a flow passage, when stream changes direction! magnitude.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C

16. Garret’s diagrams are used to
A. separate base flow from total runoff
B. correct inconsistency in rainfall data
C. determine reservoir capacity
D. design channels
Ans: D

17. Consider the following statements:
The critical value of Reynolds number at which the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent depends upon
1. Turbulence in ambient flow
2. Surface roughness.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? . .
A. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only ,
D. Both 1 and 2
Ans: D

18. In a transit theodolite, error due to eccentricity
of verniers is eliminated by reading
A. both verniers
B. both right swing and left swing
C. ‘right and left faces
D. different parts of main scale
Ans: A

19. An aeroplane is cruising’ at a speed of 800 km/ h at an. altitude where the air temperature is 0°C. The flight Mach number at this speed is nearly
A. 1.3
B. 0.67
C. 0.25
D. 2.4
Ans: B

20. Light reflecting devices used to guide the driver along the proper alignment are called
A. Rumble strips
B. Delineators
C.Attenuators
D. Litter bin
Ans: B

21.The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when tha head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to
A. the total supply head
B. half of the total supply head
C. one-third of the supply head
D. one-fourth of the total supply head

22. A centrifugal pump gives maximum efficiency when its impeller blades are
A. bent forward
B. bent backward
C. straight
D. wave-shaped

23.Which one of the following types of samples is relevantly employed for the design of wastewater treatment plant?
A. Grab sample
B. Composite sample
C. Integrated sample
D. Any sample

24.Which one of the following toxic gases has physiological action as asphyxiant?
A. So2
B. No2
C. Cl2
D. Co

25.If an SPT test gave the average blow count of 32 in fine sand below water table, then what is the corrected value of blow count?
A. 22.1
B. 23.5
C. 24.2
D. 24.8

26. What is the treatment for making timber fire-resistant?
A. ASCU treatment
B. Abel’s process
C. Creosoting
D. Tarring

27. For a material having modulus of elasticity equal to 208 Gpa and Poisson’s ratio equal to 0.3, what is the modulus of rigidity?
A. 74.0 Gpa
B. 80.0 Gpa
C. 100.0 Gpa
D. 128.5 Gpa

28. Given E as the Young’s modulus of elasticity of a material, what can be the minimum value of its bulk modulus of elasticity ?
A. E/2
B. E/3
C. E/4
D. E/5

29.Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of concrete?
A. Compression test
B. Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
C. Split test
D. Tension test

30.What is the modulus of elasticity of standard timber (Group B) in (MN/cm2)?
A. 0.5 to 1.0
B. 1.0 to 1.25
C. 1.25 to 1.5
D. 10 to 20

31. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to the roof,
is taken as
A 0.65 kN/rn2
B. 0.75 kN/ rn2
C. 1.35 kN/ rn2
D. 1.50 kN/ rn2
Ans:A

32. The batten plates used to connect the components of a built-up-column are designed to resist
A Longitudinal shear only
B. Transverse shear only
C. Longitudinal shear and moment arising from transverse shear
D. Vertical shear only
Ans:C

33. In ISMC 400 channels placed back to backat a spacing of 26 cm carry an axial load of
160 tonnes. The lacing system should be designed to resist a transverse shear of
A 16 tonnes
B. 12 tonnes
C. 8 tonnes
D. 4 tonnes
Ans:D

34. A steel beam is replaced by a corresponding aluminium beam of same cross-sectional shape and dimensions, and is subjected to same loading. The maximum bending. stress will
A Be unaltered
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D.Vary in proportion to their modulus of elasticity
Ans:A

35. A beam of symmetrical. I-section, made of structural steel has an overall depth. of 300 mm. If the flange stresses developed at the top and bottom of the beam are 1200 kg/cm2 . and 300 kg/cm2 . respectively, then the depth of neutral axis from the top of the beam would be
A 250mm
B.240mm
C. 200 mm
D. 180 mm
Ans:B

36. In PERT analysis, the time estimate of
activities correspond to
A Normal distribution
B. Poisson’s distribution
C.β distribution
D. Binomial distribution
Ans:C

37. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of
A Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
B. Lateral strain and longitudinal strain
C. Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
D. Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
Ans:B

38. At the location of a plastic hinge,
A Radius of curvature is infinite
B. Curvature is infinite
C. Moment is infinite
D. Flexible stress is infinite
Ans:B

39. If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by load balancing concept for an effective span of 10 m and to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, the central dip of the cable profile should be
A 100mm
B. 200 mm
C. 300mm
D. 400 mm
Ans:B

40. Consider the following statements relating to structural analysis
1. Flexibility matrix and its transpose are equal.
2. Elements of main diagonal of stiffness matrix are always positive.
3. For unstable structures, coefficient in leading diagonal matrix can be negative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. 3 only
Ans: B

41. The head on a sharp-crested rectangular weir of height 1.6 m and crest length 1.2 m was incorrectly observed to be
0.13 m when it was actually 0.15 m. What was the percentage error in the computed value of flow rate?
A. 0.5%
B. 1.0%
C. 2.0%
D.1.5%
Ans. C

42. Consider the following with respect to ‘measurement of stream flow during flood:
l. Timing of the travel of floats released in the stream
2. Use of weir formula, for spillways provided on a dam
3. Calculation of flow through a contracted opening at a bridge
4. Using a current meter
Which of the above is/are reliable and accurate?
A. 1
B. 4 only
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 3
Ans. B

43. What is the most important design parameter used in designing a continuous flow rectangular sedimentation tank for removal of discrete particles?
A. Length of the tank
B. Surface overflow rate
C. Depth of the tank
D. Temperature of the water to be treated
Ans. B

44. Effluent from a wastewater treatment plant (flow rate = 8640 m3/d, temperature = 25° C) is discharged to a surface stream (flow rate = 1.2 m3/s, temperature = 15° C). What is the temperature of the stream after mixing?
A. 10°C
B. 15.77° C
C. 20° C
D. 24.99° C
Ans. B

45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Type of impurity) (Harm caused)
A. Excess of nitrates 1. Brackish water
B. Excess of fluorides 2. Goiter
C. Lack of iodides 3. Fragile bones
D. Excess of chlorides 4. . Blue babies
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans. c

46. The concentration of OH- ion in a water sample is measured as 17 mg/L at 25° C. What is the pH of the water sample?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
Ans. D

47. Which one of the following types of samples is relevantly employed for the design of wastewater treatment plant?
A. Grab sample
B. Composite sample
C. Integrated sample
D. Any sample
Ans. A

48. A drain carrying sewage of BOD = 200 mg/L and flow rate of 50 m3/s joins a river whose upstream BOD is 8 mg/L and flow rate is 500 m3/s. Assume immediate and complete mixing of drain with the river. What is the estimated downstream BOD of the river flow?
A. 20.4 mg/L
B. 25.4 mg/L
C. 104.4 mg/L
D. 70.4 mg/L
Ans. B

49. A 12.5 mL sample of treated wastewater requires 187.5 mL of odor-free distilled water to reduce the odor to a level that is just
perceptible. What is the threshold odor number (TON) for the wastewater sample?
A. 0.07
B. 1.07
C. 15
D. 16.
Ans. (d)

50. Which one of the following parameters is not included in the routine characterization of, solid waste for its physical composition?
A. Moisture content
B. Density
C. Particle size analysis
D. Energy value
Ans. D

51. Which one of the following processes of water softening requires recarbonation?
A. Lime-soda ash process
B. Hydrogen-cation exchanger process
C. Sodium-cation exchanger process
D. Demineralization
Ans. A

52. Math List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Water/Wastewater treatment) (Operating problem)
A. Trickling filter 1. Negative head
B. Activated sludge process 2. Fly-breeding
C. Rapid gravity filter 3. Sludge bulking
D. Anaerobic sludge digester 4. pH reduction
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)

53. Consider the following treatment process units in a water treatment plant:
1. Coagulation
2. Disinfection
3. Sedimentation
4. Filtration
Which is the correct sequence of the process units in the water treatment plant?
(a) 2-4-3-1
(b) 1-4-3-2
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 1-3-4-2
Ans. (d)

54. Which one of the following tests of water/ wastewater employs Erichrome Black T as indicator?
A. Hardness.
B. COD
C. Residual chlorine
D. DO
Ans. A

55. Which of the following pollutants are generally not removed in a sewage treatment plant?
A. Inorganic suspended solids
B. Dissolved organic solids
C. Oil and grease
D. Dissolved inorganic, solids
Ans. B

56. A clay sample, originally 26 mm thick at a void ratio of 1.22, was subjected to a compressive load. After the clay sample
was completely consolidated, its thickness was measured to be 24 mm. What is the final void ratio?
A. 1.322
B. 1.421
C. 1.311
D. 1.050
Ans. D

57. For a sandy soil with soil grains spherical in shape and uniform in size, what is the theoretical void ratio?
A. 0.61
B. 0.71
C. 0.91
D. 0.81
Ans. C

58. A soil has liquid limit = 35, plastic limit = 20, shrinkage limit = 10 and natural moisture content = 25%. What will be its liquidity index, plasticity index and shrinkage index?
A. 0.67, 15 and 25
B. 0.33, 15 and 10
C. 0.67, 25 and 15
D. 0.33, 20 and 15
Ans. B

59. A cohesive soil yields a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 during a standard Proctor Compaction test. If the specific gravity is 2.65, what would be its void ratio?
A. 0.552
B. 0.624
C. 0.712
D. 0.583
Ans. B

60. Consider the following:
1. Increase in shear strength and bearing capacity
2. Increase in slope stability
3. Decrease in settlement of soil
4. Decrease in permeability
Which of the above with respect to compaction of soil is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

61. Which one of the following toxic gases has physiological action as asphyxiant?
A. SO2
B. NO2
C. Cl2
D. CO
Ans. A

62. Assuming annual travel for each vehicle to be 20000 km, what is the quantity of NOx produced from 50000 vehicles with emission rate of 2.0 g/km/vehicle?
A. 1800 tonnes
B. 1900 tonnes
C. 2000 tonnes
D. 2100 tonnes
Ans. C

63. What are the air pollutants responsible for acid rain within and downwind areas of major industrial emissions?
A. Hydrogen sulfide and oxides of nitrogen
B. Sulfure dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide
D. methane and hydrogen sulfide
Ans. B

64. Consider the following air pollutants:
1. NOx
2. PAN
3. CO2
4. CO
Which of the above air pollutants is/are present in an auto exhaust gas?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

65. Which one of the following conditions is valid in case of unconfined compression test in comparison to triaxial test?
A. Minor principal stress = 0
B. Minor principal stress = 0.5 × major principal stress
C. Minor principal stress = major principal stress
D. Major principal stress = 3 × minor principal stress
Ans. A

66. Deposit with flocculated structure is formed when
(A) Clay particles settle on sea bed
(B) Clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed
(C) Sand particles settle on river bed
(D) Sand particles settle on sea bed

67. During a CBR test, the load sustained by a remolded soil specimen at 5.0mm penetration is 50kg.
The CBR value of the soil will be
(A) 10.0%
(B) 5.0%
(C) 3.6%
(D) 2.4%

68. A hollow circular shaft has an outer diameter of 100mm and a wall thickness of 25mm. The allowable shear stress in the shaft is 125MPa.
The maximum torque the shaft can transmit is
(A) 46kN m
(B) 24.5kN m
(C) 23kN m
(D) 11.5kN m

69. A rectangular concrete beam of width 120mm and depth 200mm is prestressed by pretensioning to a force of 150kN at an eccentricity of 20mm. The cross sectional area of the prestressing steel is 187.5mm2. Take modulus of elasticity of steel and concrete as 5 2.1×10 MPa and 4 3.0×10 MPa respectively. The percentage loss of stress in the prestressing steel due to elastic deformation of concrete is
(A) 8.75
(B) 6.125
(C) 4.81
(D) 2.19

70. Water flows through a 100mm diameter pipe with a velocity of 0.015m/sec. If the kinematic viscosity of water is 6 2 1.13 ×10− m / sec, the friction factor of the pipe material is
(A) 0.0015
(B) 0.032
(C) 0.037
(D) 0.048

71. A horizontal flow primary clarifier treats wastewater in which 10%, 60% and 30% of particles have settling velocities of 0.1mm/s, 0.2mm/s, 0.2mm/s, and 1.0mm/s respectively. What would be the total percentage of particles removed if clarifier operates at a Surface Overflow Rate (SOR) of 43.2m3/m2.d?
(A) 43%
(B) 56%
(C) 86%
(D) 100%

72. The maximum resistance offered by the soil through skin friction while pulling out the pile from the ground is
(A) 104.9kN
(B) 209.8kN
(C) 236kN
(D) 472kN

73. The number of independent elastic constants for a linear elastic isotropic and homogeneous material is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

74. The effective length of a column of length L fixed against rotation and translation at one end and free at the other end is
(A) 0.5 L
(B) 0.7 L
(C) 1.414 L
(D) 2L

75. A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60 and plastic limit of 20. As per the plasticity chart, according to IS classification, the soil is represented by the letter symbols
(A) CL
(B) CI
(C) CH
(D) CL-ML

76. A coastal city produces municipal solid waste (MSW) with high moisture content, high organic materials, low calorific value and low inorganic materials. The most effective and sustainable option for MSW management in that city is
(A) Composting
(B) Dumping in sea
(C) Incineration
(D) Landfill

77. According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) Rules, 2000, of the Ministry of Environment and Forests, India, the day time and night time noise level limits in ambient air for residential areas expressed in dB(A) Leg are
(A) 50 and 40
(B) 55 and 45
(C) 65 and 55
(D) 75 and 70

78. Aggregate impact value indicates the following property of aggregates
(A) Durability
(B) Toughness
(C) Hardness
(D) Strength

79. The Froude number of flown in a rectangular channel is 0.8. If the depth of flow is 1.5m, the critical depth is
(A) 1.80m
(B) 1.56m
(C) 1.36m
(D) 1.29m

80. The presence of hardness in excess of permissible limit causes
(A) Cardio Vascular problems
(B) Skin discolouration
(C) Calcium deficiency
(D) Increased laundry expenses

81. The water content of a saturated soil and the specific gravity of soil solids were found to be 30% and 2.70, respectively. Assuming the unit weight of water to be 10kN / m3, the saturated unit weight (kN/m3), and the void ratio of the soil are
(A) 19.4, 0.81
(B) 18.5, 0.30
(C) 19.4. 0.45
(D) 18.5, 0.45

82. 50g of CO2 and 25g of CH4 are produced from the decomposition of municipal solid waste (MSW) with a formula weight of 120g. What is the average per capita green house gas production in a city of 1 million people with a MSW production rate of 500 ton / day?
(A) 104 g/day
(B) 120 g/day
(C) 208 g/day
(D) 313 g /day

83. The vertical stress at some depth below the corner of a 2m x 3m rectangular footing due to a certain load intensity is 100 kN / m2 below the centre of a 4m x 6m rectangular footing at the same depth and same load intensity?
(A) 25
(B) 100
(C) 200
(D) 400

84. There is a free overfall at the end of a long open channel. For a given flow rate, the critical depth is less than the normal depth. What gradually varied flow profile will occur in the channel for this flow rate?
(A) M1
(B) M2
(C) M3
(D) S1

85. The presence of hardness in excess of permissible limit causes
(A) Cardio Vascular problems
(B) Skin discolouration
(C) Calcium deficiency
(D) Increased laundry expenses

86. The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be determined from the following.
(A) Ductility test
(B) Penetration test
(C) Softening point Test
(D) Viscosity test

87. The maximum and minimum shear stresses in a hollow circular shaft of outer diameter 20mm and thickness 2mm, subjected to a torque of 92.7 N.m will be
(A) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa
(B) 10MPa and 80MPa
(C) 118 MPa and 160 MPa
(D) 200 MPa and 160 MPa

88. Two primary air pollutants are
(A) sulphur oxide and ozone
(B) nitrogen oxide and peroxyacetylnitrate
(C) sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon
(D) ozone and peroxyacetynitrate

88. Two biodegradable components of municipal solid waste are
(A) plastics and wood
(B) cardboard and glass
(C) leather and tin cans
(D) food wastes and garden trimmings

89. The shape of the STOP sign according to IRC: 67-2001 is
(A) circular
(B) triangular
(C) octagonal
(D) rectangular

90. The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account is called
(A) Geodetic surveying
(B) Plane surveying
(C) Preliminary surveying
(D) Topographical surveying

91. Un-factored maximum bending moments at a section of a reinforced concrete beam resulting from a frame analysis are 50, 80, 120 and 180kNm under dead, live, wind and earthquake loads respectively. The design moment (kNm) as per IS: 456- 2000 for the limit state of collapse (flexure) is
(A) 195
(B) 250
(C) 345
(D) 372

92. The plan of a survey plotted to a scale of 10m to 1cm is reduced in such a way that a line originally 10cm long now measures 9cm. the area of the reduced plan is measured as 81cm2. the actual (m2) of the survey is
(A) 10000
(B) 6561
(C) 1000
(D) 656

93. When a retaining wall moves away from the back-fill, the pressure exerted on the wall is termed as
(A) Passive earth pressure
(B) Swelling pressure
(C) Pore pressure
(D) Active earth pressure

94. Compaction by vibratory roller is the best method of compaction in case of
(A) moist silty sand
(B) well graded dry sand
(C) clay of medium compressibility
(D) silt of high compressibility

95. A flood wave with a known inflow hydrograph is routed through a large reservoir. The outflow hydrograph will have
(A) attenuated peak with reduced time-base
(B) attenuated peak with increased time-base
(C) increased peak with increased time-base
(D) increased peak with reduced time-base

96. The capacities of “One-way 1.5m wide sidewalk (persons per hour)” and “Oneway 2-lane urban road (PCU per hour, with no frontage access, no standing vehicles and very little cross traffic)” are respectively
(A) 1200 and 2400
(B) 1800 and 2000
(C) 1200 and 1500
(D) 2000 and 1200

97. A vertical PQ of length L is fixed at its top end P and has a flange to the bottom end Q. A weight W is dropped vertically from a height h ((A) increasing the length of the rod
(B) decreasing the length of the rod
(C) decreasing the area of cross-section of the rod
(D) increasing the modulus of elasticity of the material

98. If the BOD3 of a wastewater sample is 75mg/L and reaction rate constant k (base e) is 0.345 per day, the amount of BOD remaining in the given sample after 10days is
(A) 3.21 mg/L
(B) 3.45 mg/L
(C) 3.69 mg/L
(D) 3.92 mg/L

99. Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of mass 1000g showed that 980g and 270g of soil pass through 4.75mm and 0.075mm sieve, respectively. The liquid limit and plastic limits of the soil fraction passing through 425μ sieves are 40% and 18% respectively. The soil may be classified as
(A) SC
(B) MI
(C) CI
(D) SM

100. In the theory of plastic bending of beams, the ratio of plastic moment to yield moment is called
(A) Shape factor
(B) Plastic section modulus
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Rigidity modulus

EIL Placement Paper : EIL Placement Paper Electronics Technical Questions 14 July 2012

Engineers India Limited (EIL) -2012 Latest Technical Questions with Answers for Electronics and Communication Engineering,EIL Fresh Graduate Trainee Recruitment - 2012 ,EIL Management Trainee - July 15th 2012,EIL Management trainee previous years question papers,EIL freesolved sample placement papers

1. The eigen values of a skew-symmetric matrix are
(A) always zero
(B) always pure imaginary
(C) either zero or pure imaginary
(D) always real

2.A function n(x) satisfied the differential equation (d2n(x)/dx2)-n(x)/L2=0 where L is a constant. The boundary conditions are: n(0)=K and n ( ∞ ) = 0. The solution to this equation is
(A) n(x) = K exp(x/L)
(B) n(x) = K exp(-x/ L )
(C) n(x) = K2 exp(-x/L)
(D) n(x) = K exp(-x/L)

3. For parallel RLC circuit, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(A) The bandwidth of the circuit deceases if R is increased
(B) The bandwidth of the circuit remains same if L is increased
(C) At resonance, input impedance is a real quantity
(D) At resonance, the magnitude of input impedance attains its minimum value.

4. At room temperature, a possible value for the mobility of electrons in the inversion
layer of a silicon n-channel MOSFET is
(A) 450 cm2/V-s
(B) 1350 cm2/V-s
(C) 1800 cm2/V-s
(D) 3600 cm2/V-s

5. Thin gate oxide in a CMOS process in preferably grown using
(A) wet oxidation
(B) dry oxidation
(C) epitaxial deposition
(D) ion implantation


6.For an N-point FFT algorithm with N = 2m which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) It is not possible to construct a signal flow graph with both input and output in normal order
(B) The number of butterflies in the mth stage is N/m
(C) In-place computation requires storage of only 2N node data
(D) Computation of a butterfly requires only one complex multiplication

7. Consider an angle modulated signal x(t) = 6cos[2πx106t+2sin(8000πt) +
4cos(8000pt)] V. The average power of x(t) is.
(A) 10W
(B) 18W
(C) 20W
(D) 28W

8.A transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 50 Ω and a resistance of 0.1 Ω /m. if the line is distortion less, the attenuation constant (in Np/m) is
(A) 500
(B) 5
(C) 0.014
(D) 0.002

9.The electric field component of a time harmonic plane EM wave traveling in a nonmagnetic loss less dielectric medium has an amplitude of 1 V/m. If the relative permitivity of the medium is 4, the magnitude of the time-average power density
vector (in W/m2) is
(A)1/30π
(B)1/60π
(C)1/120π
(D)1/240π

10.Suppose that the modulating signal is m(t) = 2cos (2π fmt) and the carrier signal is xC(t) = AC cos(2πfct), which one of the following is a conventional AM signal without over-modulation?
(A) x(t) = Acm(t) cos(2πfct)
(B) x(t) = Ac[1 + m(t)]cos(2πfct)
(C) x(t) = Ac cos(2πfct) + Ac/4m(t) cos(2πfct)
(D) x(t) = Ac cos(2πfmt) cos(2πfct) + Ac sin(2πfmt) sin(2πfct)

EIL Placement Paper : EIL Campus Placement Paper on 28 Nov. 2008 NITsilchar(civil engg)

HI frens...this is Abhishek choudhury from NITsilchar(civil engg).
Engineers India Limited visited our campus on 28/11/08... I got selected along with one mechanical student.we had no written test. I m writing the technical question that were asked to me. Interview started with general question like "Tell me bout yourself". question were asked to me from all important subjects like structural design,structural analysis Foundation. structural analysis: I Had to draw bending moment diagram of---
1)A cantilever with a moment at its end.
2)A simply supported beam with a moment at mid span.
3)A truss where i had to find member forces of each arm.
structural design(RCC): He gave me the moment of a beam and asked me the procedures of design.
Steel design: why is I section choosen over channel section.
Is codes like 456 and 875 are very important.
They asked bout detailing and different parts of IS:875.
Foundation: piles foundation- design of pile cap n detailing of false piles. pile load test parameters. not only this many more question were asked which m not able to recall now.
Be prepared with training report and project that you hav undergone. Try to be honest with ur answers n think before u speak.
EIL is a brand and they recruite very less student...so giv ur best!! I M the only student selected from civil...beleive me its not impossible. u can contact me at abhinitsc@yahoo.com.
wish u all the best!!

EIL Placement Paper : EIL Test Paper

EIL PAPER ON 6th MAY AT BHOPAL

hello guyz...
EIL(engineers india limited) consist of two section
1..Aptitude...50 marks
2..Technical...100marks..

each question carry equal marks. time limit is 2 hrs..question were easy...
technical questions;
it consist of 100 questions ...most questions were from 
instrumentation,
power electronics
power system,
..any body can refer to p.s.bhimbra

non technical question;
4 to 5 question were from maths (simple ratio and proportion,venn diagram type)
4 to 5 analogy type questions..
simple general knowledge questions..
no passage, no reasoning..
cut off may vary from 110 to 115

EIL Placement Paper : EIL Company profile

Engineers India Limited(EIL) provides engineering and related technical services for petroleum refineries and other industrial projects. In addition to petroleum refineries, with which EIL started initially, it has diversified into and excelled in other fields such as pipelines, petrochemicals, oil and gas processing, offshore structures and platforms, fertilizers, metallurgy and power. EIL provides the complete range of services needed to conceptualise, design, engineer and construct projects to meet the specific requirements of its clients.

 

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