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KPIT Placement Paper : BEL Placement Paper Candidate Experiences 17 Sep 2012

BELPlacement paper with answers|BEL Previously asked Questtions with answers|

BEL Written Test Questions

ROUND 1

1. Transition capacitance Ct of a Varicap diode with Knee voltage Vt, reverse voltage Vr and K, the constant based on semiconductor material and the construction technique & N dependent on type of junction is given by

a. 1 / K (Vt + Vr)N/2

b. 1 / K (Vt + Vr)N

c. K / (Vt + Vr)N

d. K / (Vt + Vr)1/N

Answer : c

2. Ct = K / (Vt + Vr)N where Vt Knee voltage, Vr reverse voltage, K manufacturing dependent constant and N dependent on type of junction, for alloy junction the value of N is

a. 1/3

b. 2/3

c. 1/2

d. 1/4

Answer : c

3. The distortion less output characteristic of a network means

a. Constant amplitude and linear phase shift over frequency

b. Linear phase shift and amplitude need not be constant

c. Any amplitude and phase

d. None of these

Answer : a

4. Single sideband means suppressed

a. Carrier

b. Carrier and one side band

c. One side band

d. None of these

Answer : b

5. In an amplitude modulated signal, lower side band frequency is equal to (if the carrier frequency is fc and modulation frequency is fm)

a. fm + fc

b. fc – fm

c. fm r fc

d. fc / fm

Answer : b

6. The noise figure of a receiver is a measure of:

1. Excess noise generated

2. Bandwidth of the receiver

3. Gain of the receiver

4. Operating frequency

Answer :1

7. The ratio receiver is:

1. Direct detection type

2. Super regenerative type

3. Super heterodyne type

4. None of these

Answer : 3

8. In an amplitude modulation system, the modulation index is dependent upon:

1. Modulating frequency only

2. Carrier amplitude only

3. Modulating signal amplitude only

4. Modulating and carrier amplitudes only

Answer : 2

9. Image rejection mixer is generally used:

1. To reject the unwanted signal

2. To improve signal amplitude

3. To improve noise figure

4. To improve conversion loss

Answer : 3

10. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is therefore:

1. Halved

2. Quadrapuled

3. Doubled

4. Unchanged

Answer : 2

11. Ct = K / (Vt + Vr)N where Vt Knee voltage, Vr reverse voltage, K manufacturing dependent constant and N dependent on type of junction, for diffused junction the value of N is

a. 1/3

b. 2/3

c. 1/2

d. 1/4

Answer : a

12. In JFET, the drain current Id is given by (Idss drain – source saturation current Vgs – Gate – source voltage, Vp the pinch off voltage)

a. Idss[1 – Vp/Vgs]

b. Idss(1 – Vgs/Vp)2

c. Idss[1 – Vgs/Vp)

d. Idss(1 – Vgs/Vp)3/2

Answer : b

13. The shadow mask in colour tube is used to

a. Reduce X-Ray emission

b. Ensure each beam hits its own dots

c. Increase screen brightness

d. Provide degaussing for the screen

Answer : b

14. Indicate which of the following signal is not transmitted in colour TV

a. Y

b. Q

c. R

d. I

Answer : c

15. Another name for horizontal retrace in TV receiver is the

a. Ringing

b. Burst

c. Damper

d. Fly back

Answer : d

16. Another name for the colour sync in the colour TV system

a. Ringing

b. Burst

c. Damper

d. Fly back

Answer : b

17. The HV anode supply for a picture tube of a TV receiver is generated in the

a. Mains transformer

b. Vertical output stage

c. Horizontal output stage

d. Horizontal oscillator

Answer : c

18. The output of vertical amplifier is

a. Direct current

b. Amplified vertical sync pulse

c. A saw tooth voltage

d. A saw tooth current

Answer : d

19. In a transistor if Alpha = 0.98, current gain is equal to

a. 29

b. 59

c. 69

d. 49

Answer : d

20. The active region in the common emitter configuration means

a. Both collector and emitter junction is reverse biased

b. The collector junction is forward biased and emitter junction

c. The collector junction is reverse biased and emitter junction is forwared biased

d. Both collector & emitter junction are forward biased

Answer : c

21. The saturation region in the common emitter configuration means that

a. Both collector & emitter junction are reverse biased

b. The collector junction is forward biased and emitter junction

c. The collector junction is reverse biased and emitter junction is forwared biased

d. Both collector & emitter junction are forward biased

Answer : d

22. The % of Red, Green & Blue in 100% White Y is given by

a. 30%, 59%, 11%

b. 50%, 30%, 11%

c. 30%, 11%, 50%

d. 33.3%, 33.5%, 38.3%

Answer : a

23. Equalizing pulse width, if H is the Horizontal sync rate

a. 0.64 H

b. 0.07 H

c. 0.04 H

d. 0.16 H

Answer : c

24. In a simple RC network the bandwidth is equal to

a. 1/2 p RC

b. RC / 2

c. 2 C / p R

d. 2 p / RC

Answer : a

25. The time constant of a RC network is given by

a. RC

b. C/R

c. R/C

d. None of these

Answer : d

26. First zero crossing of pulse frequency spectrum occurs at if d is the pulse width, T is the pulse repetition rate

a. 1/d

b. d/T

c. T/d

d. T

Answer : a

27. Indicated the false statement:

1. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifier

2. Impulse noise voltage is independent of bandwidth

3. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which it is measured

4. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type

Answer : 2

28. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is suppressed the percentage power saving will be:

a. 50

b. 70

c. 100

d. 66.6

Answer : d

29. A balanced modulator produces:

1. The carrier and Two side bands

2. The carrier and one side band

3. Two side bands alone

4. Carrier and a number of side bands

Answer : 3

30. The frequency deviation in FM system is proportional to:

1. Modulating frequency

2. Carrier amplitude

3. Modulating signal amplitude

4. None of these

Answer : 3

31. In FM, the total transmitted power is:

1. Dependent on modulating signal amplitude

2. Dependent on modulating frequency

3. Dependent on modulating index

4. Independent of the above

Answer : 4

32. A quarter wave line when short circuited at the far end behaves like

1. Pure inductor

2. Pure capacitor

3. Parallel tuned circuit

4. Series tuned circuit

Answer : 3

33. The stub line used to match transmission line with a given load impedance is generally

1. Another open circuited line

2. Another short circuited line

3. Quarter wave transmission line

4. Half wave transmission line

Answer : 2

34. The smith chart generally covers a distance of

1. Quarter wavelength

2. Half wavelength

3. One wavelength

4. Twice the wavelength

Answer : 2

35. The component generally used to sample a portion of the energy transmitted in a line is

1. Isolator

2. Circulator

3. Directional coupler

4. None of these

Answer : 3

36. The return loss in a transmission line is a measure of

1. Loss of the line

2. Standing wave ratio

3. Characteristic impedance of the line

4. None of these

Answer : 2

37. The antenna can be considered as

1. Matching the source and free space

2. Matching the source to the line

3. Matching the line and free space

4. None of these\

Answer : 3

38. The free space impedance is approximately equal to

1. 177 W

2. 277 W

3. 377 W

4. 50 W

Answer : 3

39. The polarization refers to

1. The physical orientation of the radiated wave

2. The directional of propagation of the wave

3. Direction perpendicular to the propagation of the wave

4. None of these

Answer : 3

40. If u & e are the permeability and permittivity respectively the characteristic impedance of the medium is given by

a. ue

b. Öu/e

c. Öe/u

d. Öeu

Answer : 2

41. The power density at distance ‘r’ from an isotropic radiator with transmitted power P is:

1. P/r2

2. P/2 p r2

3. P/4 p r2

4. None of these

` Answer : 3

42. The carrier in an FM system disappears for the lowest modulation index of:

a. 0.5

b. 1.0

c. 2.4

d. 3.5

Answer : c

43. The difference between phase and frequency modulation:

1. Is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice

2. Is too great to make the two systems compatible

3. Lies in the poorer audio response of phase modulation

4. Lies in the different definition of the modulation index

Answer : 4

44. The overall noise figure of two cascaded amplifiers is equal to

1. The algebraic sum of the two

2. The sum of the squares of the two

3. The square root of the product of the two

4. None of these

Answer : 4

45. The noise power output of an amplifier is equal to:

1. KTo BFG

2. KTo FG

3. KTo F/G

4. KTo / FG

Answer : 1

46. The effective noise temperature of an amplifier is equal to

1. (F + 1) To

2. FTo

3. (F – 1) To

4. None of these

Answer : 3

47. The noise figure of an amplifier depends upon

1. Its bandwidth

2. Its gain

3. Its operating frequency

4. None of these

Answer : 4

48. The velocity of electromagnetic wave in a coaxial cable is

1. Equal to the velocity in free space

2. Less than the velocity in free space

3. Greater than the velocity in free space

4. None of these

Answer : 2

49. The standing wave ratio [SWR] in a transmission line:

1. Is proportional to the load impedance

2. Is dependent on the source impedance

3. Is a mis-match between the load and line

4. Is a measure of its power handling capability

Answer : 3

50. The standing wave ratio (SWR) is unity in a transmission line if

1. The load impedance is equal to the characteristic impedance of the line

2. The load impedance is twice that of the characteristic impedance

3. The load impedance is half of the characteristic impedance of the line

4. None of these

Answer : 1

51. The standing wave voltage node along a line repeats at the rate of if L is the wave length

a. L/4

b.L/2

c.L

d.2L

Answer : 2

52. FM modulation becomes equivalent to AM modulation if

1. FM index is greater than 1

2. FM index is equal to 1

3. FM index is very much less than 1

4. FM index less than or equal to 1

Answer : 3

53. S/N improvement of FM over AM, B is the FM modulation index

a. 3B2

b.B

c.2B

d.B/2

Answer : a

54. Picture transmission in TV employs

1. Suppressed carrier modulation

2. Vestigial side band

3. Single side band

4. None of these

Answer : 2

55. Sound transmission in TV employ

1. Amplitude modulation

2. Phase modulation

3. Frequency modulation

4. Pulse amplitude modulation

Answer : 3

56. One of the following is an indirect way of generating FM this is the:

1. Reactance FET modulator

2. Varacter divide modulator

3. Amstrong modulator

4. Reactance bipole transistor modulator

Answer : 3

57. The modulation index of AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is

1. Un-changed

2. Halved

3. Doubled

4. Increased by 50%

Answer : 4

58. The isotropic antenna is represented by

1. Dipole antenna

2. Rhombic antenna

3. Yagi uda antenna

4. No such antenna exists in practice

Answer : 4

59. The gain of parabolic reflector antenna is proportional to

1. The diameter of the reflector

2. Square of the diameter of the reflector

3. Aperture area of the feed

4. None of these

Answer : 2

60. The parabolic reflector antenna are generally used to

1. Provide high gain

2. Provide pencil beam

3. Increase bandwidth of operation

4. None of these

Answer : 2

61. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to

1. Increase gain of the system

2. Increase the bandwidth of the system

3. Reduce the size of the main reflector

4. Allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point

Answer : 4

62. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its

1. Circular polarization

2. Maneuverability

3. Broad bandwidth

4. Good front – to – back ratio

Answer : 1

63. The discone antenna is

1. A useful direction finding antenna

2. Used as a radar receiving antenna

3. Circularly polarized like other circular antenna

4. Useful as a VHF receiving antenna

Answer : 4

64. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signals because

1. They depend on straight line propagation which applies to microwaves only

2. Losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies

3. There are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower frequencies

4. They would be too bulky at lower frequencies

Answer : 4

65. The wavelength in a waveguide

1. Is greater than in free space

2. Depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength

3. Less than the free space wavelength

4. Equal to the free space wavelength

Answer : 1

66. The dominant mode of propagation is preferres with rectangular waveguide because(indicate false statement)

1. It leads to the smallest waveguide dimensions

2. The resulting impedance can be matched directly to coaxial lines

3. It is easier to excite than the other modes

4. Propagation of it without any spurious generation can be ensured

Answer : 2

67. The velocity of propagation (group velocity) in a waveguide is

1. Less than the free space velocity

2. Greater than the free space velocity

3. Equal to be free space velocity

4. None of these

Answer : 1

68. A wave can propagate in a waveguide if its cut off wavelength is

1. Greater than the free space wavelength

2. Less than the free space wavelength

3. Equal to be free space wavelength

4. None of these

Answer :3

69. The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is

a. TE11

b. TE10

c.TE20

d.TM11

Answer : 2

70. The characteristic wave impedance of a waveguide

1. Depends on the mode of propagation

2. Does not depend on the mode of propagation

3. Is same as the free space impedance

4. None of these

Answer : 1

71. A choke flange may be used to couple two waveguides

1. To help in the alignment of the waveguides

2. Because it is simpler than any other joint

3. To compensate the discontinuities at the joint

4. To increase the bandwidth of the system

Answer : 2

72. Frequencies in the UHF range is normally propagated by means of

1. Ground waves

2. Sky waves

3. Surface waves

4. Space waves

Answer : 4

73. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to them

1. Absorption

2. Attenuation

3. Reflection

4. Refraction

Answer : 2

74. High frequency waves are

1. Absorbed by the F2 layer

2. Reflected by the D layer

3. Affected by the solar cycle

4. Capable of use for long distance communications on the moon

Answer : 3

75. Indicate which one of following terms applies to troposcatter propagation

1. SIDS

2. Fading

3. Fraday rotation

4. Atmospheric storms

Answer : 2

76. When microwave signals follow the curvature of the earth, this in known as

1. Faraday effect

2. Ducting

3. Ionospheric reflection

4. Tropospheric scattering

Answer : 2

77. An ungrounded antenna near the ground:

1. Is unlikely to need an earth mat

2. Acts as a single antenna of twice the height

3. Must be horizontally polarized

4. Acts as an antenna array

Answer : 4

78. One of the following consists of non-resonant antenna:

1. The folded dipole

2. The rhombic antenna

3. The end fire array

4. The broad side array

Answer : 2

79. Balun is:

1. A circuit element to connect balance line to unbalanced antenna or line:

2. A circuit element to connect balance line to balanced line

3. A circuit element to connect unbalance line to unbalanced line

4. None of these

Answer : 1

80. The slotted line is used to measure:

1. Standing wave ratio

2. Load impedance

3. Source impedance

4. None of these

Answer : 1

81. In amplitude modulation Ec ( 1 + m Sin Wmt) Sin Wot, each side band amplitude will be:

1. Ecm/2

2. Ecm

3. Ec/m

4. 2Ec/m

Answer : 1

82. The dominant mode in a circular waveguide is

a. TE01

b.TE11

c.TM01

d.TM11

Answer : 3

83. A ferrite is

1. A non-conductor with magnetic properties

2. An inter metallic compound with particularly good conductivity

3. An insulator which heavily attenuates magnetic fields

4. A microwave semiconductor invented by farady

Answer : 1

84. The maximum power that may be handled by a ferrite component is limited by the

1. Curie temperature

2. Saturation magnetization

3. Line width

4. Gyro magnetic resonance

Answer : 1

85. The isolator is

1. Bidirectional

2. Unidirectional

3. Used to tap the power in a waveguide transmission line

4. Used for None of these of the above

Answer : 2

86. Isolator is generally used:

1. To protect the high power transmitter

2. To protect receiver

3. To protect the antenna

4. To avoid arcing in waveguides

Answer : 1

87. A TR tube is used

1. To protect the high power transmitter

2. To protect receiver

3. To avoid arcing in waveguides

4. For None of these of the above

Answer : 2

88. Rieke diagrams are used to select best operating conditions for

1. TWT amplifier

2. Klystron oscillator

3. Magnetron oscillator

4. Cross field amplifiers

Answer : 3

89. The gain bandwidth product of a microwave transistor FT, is the frequency at which the

1. Alpha of the transistor falls by 3 dB

2. Beta of the transistor falls by 3 dB

3. Beta of the transistor falls to unity

4. Power gain of the transistor falls to unity

Answer : 1

90. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to

1. Prevent mode jumping

2. Prevent cathode-back heating

3. Ensure bunching

4. Improve the phase-focussing effect

Answer : 4

91. The transferred – electron bulk effect occurs in

1. Germanium

2. Gallium arsenide

3. Silicon

4. Metal semiconductor junction

Answer : 2

92. One of the following is not used as a microwave mixer or detector

1. Crystal diode

2. Schottky – barrier diode

3. Backward diode

4. PIN diode

Answer : 4

93. SAW devices may be used as:

1. transmission media like stripline

2. filters

3. UHF amplifiers

4. Oscillators at millimeter frequencies

Answer : 2

94. Surface acoustic waves propagate in:

1. Gallium arsenide

2. Indium phosphide

3. Stripline

4. Quartz crystal

Answer : 4

95. A parametric amplifier has an input and output frequency of 2.25 GHz, and is pumped at 4.5 GHz is a

1. Traveling wave amplifier

2. Degenerate amplifier

3. Lower-side band up converter

4. Upper-side band up converter

Answer : 2

96. The negative resistance in a tunnel diode

1. Is maximum at the peak point of the characteristic

2. Is available between the peak and valley points

3. Is maximum at the valley point

4. May be improved by the reverse bias

Answer : 2

97. Microwave links repeaters are typically 50KM apart

1. Because of atmospheric attenuation

2. Because of output tube power limitations

3. Because of Earth’s curvature

4. To ensure that the applied voltage is not excessive

Answer : 3

98. Microwave links are generally preferred to coaxial for television transmission because

1. They have less overall phase distortion

2. They are cheaper

3. Of their greater bandwidths

4. Of their relative immunity to impulse noise

Answer : 1

99. A geostationary satellite

1. Is motionless in space(except for its spin)

2. Is not really stationary at all, but orbits the earth with a 24 hour period

3. Appears stationary over Earth’s magnetic pole

4. Is located at a height of 35800KM to ensure global coverage

Answer : 2

100. The geostationary satellite launched by India are called

1. INTELSAT

2. INSAT

3. COMSAT

4. MARISAT

Answer : 2

101. After a target has been acquired the best scanning system for tracking is

1. Nodding

2. Spiral

3. Conical

4. Helical

Answer : 3

102. The Doppler frequency increases as the target

1. Approaches the radar

2. Recedes the radar

3. Moves perpendicular to the beam

4. Does not depend on the target velocity

Answer : 1

103. The Doppler effect is used in (indicate the false statement)

1. Moving target plotting on the PPI

2. MTI system

3. FM Radar

4. CW Radar

Answer : 1

104. Solution to the blind speed problem is to

1. Change the Doppler frequency

2. Vary the PRF

3. Use monopulse

4. Use MTI

Answer : 2

105. The A-scope displays

1. Target position and range

2. Target range but not position

3. Target position but not range

4. Neither range nor position but only velocity

Answer : 2

106. In the colour television system the sub carrier frequency in MHz is approximately

a. 3.58

b.4.5

c. 45.75

d. 5.58

Answer : a

107. In television 4: 3 : represents

1. The interlace ratio

2. The maximum horizontal deflection

3. Aspect ratio

4. The ratio of the two diagonals of picture tube

Answer : 3

108. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during the:

1. Horizontal blanking

2. Vertical blanking

3. The serrations

4. Horizontal retrace

Answer : 2

109. The number of lines per field in Indian television system is:

a. 625

b. 312.5

c. 525

d. 262.5

Answer : 2

110. The number of frames in Indian TV system is:

a. 50

b. 60

c. 25

d.30

Answer : a

111. In a TV receiver the colour killer:

1. Cuts off the chromastages during monochrome reception

2. Ensures that no colour is transmitted to monochrome receivers

3. Prevents colour overloading

4. Makes sure that the colour burst is not mistaken for sync pulses

Answer : 1

112. A parametric amplifier must be cooled

1. Because parametric amplification generates a lot of hest

2. To increase bandwidth

3. Because it cannot operate at room temperature

4. To improve the noise performance

Answer : 4

113. If the peak transmitted power in a Radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of

a. 2

b. 4

c.8

d. 16

Answer : d

114. Telephone traffic is measured

1. With echo

2. By relative congestion

3. In terms of the grade of service

4. In erlangs

Answer : 1

`115. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of:

a. O2

b. 2

c. 4

d. 8

Answer : c

116. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)

1. Make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise

2. Make target tracking easier with conical scanning

3. Increase the maximum range

4. Have no effect on the range resolution

Answer : 3

117. The bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the

1. Pulse width

2. Pulse repetition frequency

3. Pulse interval

4. Square root of the peak transmitted power

Answer : 1

118. If d is the pulse width, T is pulse repetition period and P is the peak power, the duty ratio is

a. T/d

b.P/T

c.P/d

d.d/T

Answer : d

119. If d is the duty ratio and P is the peak power in a pulsed transmitter, then the average power is

a. P.d

b. P.2d

c.P/d

d. P/2d

Answer : a

120. If the return echo arrives after the allocated pulse interval

1. It will interfere with operation of the transmitter

2. The receive might be overloaded

3. It will not be received

4. The target will appear closer than it really is

Answer : 4

ROUND 2

1How many of the integers between 25 and 45 are even?

A) 21

B) 20

C) 11

D) 10

E) 9

2 If taxi fares were Rs.1.00 for the first 1/5 mile and Rs.0.20 for each 1/5 miles thereafter, the taxi fare for a 3-mile ride was

A) Rs.1.56

B) Rs.2.40

C) Rs.3.00

D) Rs.3.80

E) Rs.4.20

3. A computer routine was developed to generate two numbers (X, Y) the first being a random number between 0 and 100 inclusive, and the second being less than or equal to the square root of the first. Each of the following pairs satisfies the routine EXCEPT

A) (99.10)

B) (85.9)

C) (50.7)

D) (1.1)

E) (1.0)

4.A warehouse had a square floor with are 10,000 sq. metres. A rectangular addition was built along one entire side of the warehouse that increased the floor by one-half as much as the original floor. How many metres did the addition extend beyond the original building?

A) 10

B) 20

C) 50

D) 200

E) 500

5. A digital wristwatch was set accurately at 8.30 a.m. and then lost 2 seconds every 5 minutes. What time was indicated on the watch at 6.30 p.m. of the same day if the watch operated continuously that time?

A) 5:56

B) 5:58

C) 6.00

D) 6:23

E) 6:20

6. A 5 litre jug contains 4 litres of a saltwater solution that is 15 percent salt. If 1.5 litres of the solution spilts out of jug, and the jug is then filled to capacity with water, approximately what percent of the resulting solution in the jug is salt?

A).5%

B) 9.5%

C) 10.5%

D) 12%

E) 15%

7. It was calculated that 75 men could complete a piece of work in 20 days. When work was scheduled to commence, it was found necessary to send 25 men to another project. How much longer will it take to complete the work?

8. A student divided a number by 2/3 when he required to multiply by 3/2. Calculate the percentage of error in his result.

9. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg. His gain is …%.

10. A software engineer has the capability of thinking 100 lines of code in five minutes and can type 100 lines of code in 10 minutes. He takes a break for five minutes after every ten minutes. How many lines of codes will he complete typing after an hour?

11.There are total 15 people. 7 speaks french and 8 speaks spanish. 3 do not speak any

language. Which part of total people speaks both languages?

Ans: 1/5

12. A jogger wants to save ¼th of his jogging time. He should increase his speed by how much %age?

Ans: 33.33 %

13. a is an integer. Dividing 89 & 125 gives remainders 4 & 6 respectively. Find a ?

Ans: 17

14. A Child is saying numbers 1, 2, 3, 4. When he says 1 Another child puts white marble in a box. On saying 2 he puts Blue marble and on saying 3 he puts red marble. When child says 4 other child take out white and blue marble. Child says some no. in a sequence then questions are based on the no. of marbles in the box. Like this

1,1,2,3,1, 4, 1,1,3,2,2,4,111…

a) Find the no. of Blue marble in the box

b) Find the no. of White

c) No. of red marbles

15 A man crosses a circle of perimeter 35 m in 44 sec and he runs a hexagon of 42 m side. In how many second he finishes the complete perimeter of the hexagon?

16. A+b do a work in 6 days. A+c do the work in 10 days, c+a in 7.5 days. How manydays will it take for a+b+c to do the work and also find the number of days required by a alone?

17. Complete the series 7 49 56 392………….

18. A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle. What is the perimeter of the hexagon in relation with the radius of the circle?

19. A circular path has a perimeter of 120m.a, b,c travel at 5 7 15m/s respectively. They start simultaneously. At what time do they meet next?

20. Totally there are 12 pipes. Some pipes fill the tank and some empties the tank (data will be given). If all the pipes are opened simultaneously when will the tank be filled?

21.Average age of 24 students is 36. When the age of teacher is added the average age is increased by 1 year. What is the age of the teacher?

22. Water and milk are mixed in the ratio 2:1,5:3 and 9:4.when all the mixtures of equal volume are mixed together what is the ratio water and milk in the resulting solution?

23. Average rate of five orange and four apples is 12 and 7 orange and 8 apples are 86. Find the total rate of 24 orange and 24 apples.

24.In how many ways the letters in the word MANAGEMENT can be arranged such that A’s does not come together?

25. A give B a start of 20 sec and leads by 20m. When he starts off 25 sec he finishes at the same time. What is the speed of A. (wordings not sure)?

25) A father has six children .all the children are born at regular intervels.if the sum of their ages of all the children and father is 186. calculate the age of the elder son, when the younger sons age is 3?

26. A man was engaged on a job for 30 days on the condition that he would get a wage of Rs. 10 for the day he works, but he have to pay a fine of Rs. 2 for each day of his absence. If he gets Rs. 216 at the end, he was absent for work for ... days.

27. A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days, employed 75 men each working 8 hours daily. After 90 days, only 2/7 of the work was completed. Increasing the number of men by ________ each working now for 10 hours daily, the work can be completed in time.

28. Rs 50000 is divided into two parts

One part is given to a person with 10% interest and another part is given to a person with 20 % interest.At the end of first yearn he gets profit 7000 . Find money given by 10% ?

29. Time shown by a watch is 2.20 .Find the angle between them ?

30. Avg cost of 5apples+4 mangoes=rs.36

Avg cost of 7 apples + 8 mangoes=rs.48

Find total cost of 24 mangoes and 24 apples?

BEL Written Test Questions

ROUND 1

1. Transition capacitance Ct of a Varicap diode with Knee voltage Vt, reverse voltage Vr and K, the constant based on semiconductor material and the construction technique & N dependent on type of junction is given by

a. 1 / K (Vt + Vr)N/2

b. 1 / K (Vt + Vr)N

c. K / (Vt + Vr)N

d. K / (Vt + Vr)1/N

Answer : c

2. Ct = K / (Vt + Vr)N where Vt Knee voltage, Vr reverse voltage, K manufacturing dependent constant and N dependent on type of junction, for alloy junction the value of N is

a. 1/3

b. 2/3

c. 1/2

d. 1/4

Answer : c

3. The distortion less output characteristic of a network means

a. Constant amplitude and linear phase shift over frequency

b. Linear phase shift and amplitude need not be constant

c. Any amplitude and phase

d. None of these

Answer : a

4. Single sideband means suppressed

a. Carrier

b. Carrier and one side band

c. One side band

d. None of these

Answer : b

5. In an amplitude modulated signal, lower side band frequency is equal to (if the carrier frequency is fc and modulation frequency is fm)

a. fm + fc

b. fc – fm

c. fm r fc

d. fc / fm

Answer : b

6. The noise figure of a receiver is a measure of:

1. Excess noise generated

2. Bandwidth of the receiver

3. Gain of the receiver

4. Operating frequency

Answer :1

7. The ratio receiver is:

1. Direct detection type

2. Super regenerative type

3. Super heterodyne type

4. None of these

Answer : 3

8. In an amplitude modulation system, the modulation index is dependent upon:

1. Modulating frequency only

2. Carrier amplitude only

3. Modulating signal amplitude only

4. Modulating and carrier amplitudes only

Answer : 2

9. Image rejection mixer is generally used:

1. To reject the unwanted signal

2. To improve signal amplitude

3. To improve noise figure

4. To improve conversion loss

Answer : 3

10. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is therefore:

1. Halved

2. Quadrapuled

3. Doubled

4. Unchanged

Answer : 2

11. Ct = K / (Vt + Vr)N where Vt Knee voltage, Vr reverse voltage, K manufacturing dependent constant and N dependent on type of junction, for diffused junction the value of N is

a. 1/3

b. 2/3

c. 1/2

d. 1/4

Answer : a

12. In JFET, the drain current Id is given by (Idss drain – source saturation current Vgs – Gate – source voltage, Vp the pinch off voltage)

a. Idss[1 – Vp/Vgs]

b. Idss(1 – Vgs/Vp)2

c. Idss[1 – Vgs/Vp)

d. Idss(1 – Vgs/Vp)3/2

Answer : b

13. The shadow mask in colour tube is used to

a. Reduce X-Ray emission

b. Ensure each beam hits its own dots

c. Increase screen brightness

d. Provide degaussing for the screen

Answer : b

14. Indicate which of the following signal is not transmitted in colour TV

a. Y

b. Q

c. R

d. I

Answer : c

15. Another name for horizontal retrace in TV receiver is the

a. Ringing

b. Burst

c. Damper

d. Fly back

Answer : d

16. Another name for the colour sync in the colour TV system

a. Ringing

b. Burst

c. Damper

d. Fly back

Answer : b

17. The HV anode supply for a picture tube of a TV receiver is generated in the

a. Mains transformer

b. Vertical output stage

c. Horizontal output stage

d. Horizontal oscillator

Answer : c

18. The output of vertical amplifier is

a. Direct current

b. Amplified vertical sync pulse

c. A saw tooth voltage

d. A saw tooth current

Answer : d

19. In a transistor if Alpha = 0.98, current gain is equal to

a. 29

b. 59

c. 69

d. 49

Answer : d

20. The active region in the common emitter configuration means

a. Both collector and emitter junction is reverse biased

b. The collector junction is forward biased and emitter junction

c. The collector junction is reverse biased and emitter junction is forwared biased

d. Both collector & emitter junction are forward biased

Answer : c

21. The saturation region in the common emitter configuration means that

a. Both collector & emitter junction are reverse biased

b. The collector junction is forward biased and emitter junction

c. The collector junction is reverse biased and emitter junction is forwared biased

d. Both collector & emitter junction are forward biased

Answer : d

22. The % of Red, Green & Blue in 100% White Y is given by

a. 30%, 59%, 11%

b. 50%, 30%, 11%

c. 30%, 11%, 50%

d. 33.3%, 33.5%, 38.3%

Answer : a

23. Equalizing pulse width, if H is the Horizontal sync rate

a. 0.64 H

b. 0.07 H

c. 0.04 H

d. 0.16 H

Answer : c

24. In a simple RC network the bandwidth is equal to

a. 1/2 p RC

b. RC / 2

c. 2 C / p R

d. 2 p / RC

Answer : a

25. The time constant of a RC network is given by

a. RC

b. C/R

c. R/C

d. None of these

Answer : d

26. First zero crossing of pulse frequency spectrum occurs at if d is the pulse width, T is the pulse repetition rate

a. 1/d

b. d/T

c. T/d

d. T

Answer : a

27. Indicated the false statement:

1. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifier

2. Impulse noise voltage is independent of bandwidth

3. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which it is measured

4. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type

Answer : 2

28. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is suppressed the percentage power saving will be:

a. 50

b. 70

c. 100

d. 66.6

Answer : d

29. A balanced modulator produces:

1. The carrier and Two side bands

2. The carrier and one side band

3. Two side bands alone

4. Carrier and a number of side bands

Answer : 3

30. The frequency deviation in FM system is proportional to:

1. Modulating frequency

2. Carrier amplitude

3. Modulating signal amplitude

4. None of these

Answer : 3

31. In FM, the total transmitted power is:

1. Dependent on modulating signal amplitude

2. Dependent on modulating frequency

3. Dependent on modulating index

4. Independent of the above

Answer : 4

32. A quarter wave line when short circuited at the far end behaves like

1. Pure inductor

2. Pure capacitor

3. Parallel tuned circuit

4. Series tuned circuit

Answer : 3

33. The stub line used to match transmission line with a given load impedance is generally

1. Another open circuited line

2. Another short circuited line

3. Quarter wave transmission line

4. Half wave transmission line

Answer : 2

34. The smith chart generally covers a distance of

1. Quarter wavelength

2. Half wavelength

3. One wavelength

4. Twice the wavelength

Answer : 2

35. The component generally used to sample a portion of the energy transmitted in a line is

1. Isolator

2. Circulator

3. Directional coupler

4. None of these

Answer : 3

36. The return loss in a transmission line is a measure of

1. Loss of the line

2. Standing wave ratio

3. Characteristic impedance of the line

4. None of these

Answer : 2

37. The antenna can be considered as

1. Matching the source and free space

2. Matching the source to the line

3. Matching the line and free space

4. None of these\

Answer : 3

38. The free space impedance is approximately equal to

1. 177 W

2. 277 W

3. 377 W

4. 50 W

Answer : 3

39. The polarization refers to

1. The physical orientation of the radiated wave

2. The directional of propagation of the wave

3. Direction perpendicular to the propagation of the wave

4. None of these

Answer : 3

40. If u & e are the permeability and permittivity respectively the characteristic impedance of the medium is given by

a. ue

b. Öu/e

c. Öe/u

d. Öeu

Answer : 2

41. The power density at distance ‘r’ from an isotropic radiator with transmitted power P is:

1. P/r2

2. P/2 p r2

3. P/4 p r2

4. None of these

` Answer : 3

42. The carrier in an FM system disappears for the lowest modulation index of:

a. 0.5

b. 1.0

c. 2.4

d. 3.5

Answer : c

43. The difference between phase and frequency modulation:

1. Is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice

2. Is too great to make the two systems compatible

3. Lies in the poorer audio response of phase modulation

4. Lies in the different definition of the modulation index

Answer : 4

44. The overall noise figure of two cascaded amplifiers is equal to

1. The algebraic sum of the two

2. The sum of the squares of the two

3. The square root of the product of the two

4. None of these

Answer : 4

45. The noise power output of an amplifier is equal to:

1. KTo BFG

2. KTo FG

3. KTo F/G

4. KTo / FG

Answer : 1

46. The effective noise temperature of an amplifier is equal to

1. (F + 1) To

2. FTo

3. (F – 1) To

4. None of these

Answer : 3

47. The noise figure of an amplifier depends upon

1. Its bandwidth

2. Its gain

3. Its operating frequency

4. None of these

Answer : 4

48. The velocity of electromagnetic wave in a coaxial cable is

1. Equal to the velocity in free space

2. Less than the velocity in free space

3. Greater than the velocity in free space

4. None of these

Answer : 2

49. The standing wave ratio [SWR] in a transmission line:

1. Is proportional to the load impedance

2. Is dependent on the source impedance

3. Is a mis-match between the load and line

4. Is a measure of its power handling capability

Answer : 3

50. The standing wave ratio (SWR) is unity in a transmission line if

1. The load impedance is equal to the characteristic impedance of the line

2. The load impedance is twice that of the characteristic impedance

3. The load impedance is half of the characteristic impedance of the line

4. None of these

Answer : 1

51. The standing wave voltage node along a line repeats at the rate of if L is the wave length

a. L/4

b.L/2

c.L

d.2L

Answer : 2

52. FM modulation becomes equivalent to AM modulation if

1. FM index is greater than 1

2. FM index is equal to 1

3. FM index is very much less than 1

4. FM index less than or equal to 1

Answer : 3

53. S/N improvement of FM over AM, B is the FM modulation index

a. 3B2

b.B

c.2B

d.B/2

Answer : a

54. Picture transmission in TV employs

1. Suppressed carrier modulation

2. Vestigial side band

3. Single side band

4. None of these

Answer : 2

55. Sound transmission in TV employ

1. Amplitude modulation

2. Phase modulation

3. Frequency modulation

4. Pulse amplitude modulation

Answer : 3

56. One of the following is an indirect way of generating FM this is the:

1. Reactance FET modulator

2. Varacter divide modulator

3. Amstrong modulator

4. Reactance bipole transistor modulator

Answer : 3

57. The modulation index of AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is

1. Un-changed

2. Halved

3. Doubled

4. Increased by 50%

Answer : 4

58. The isotropic antenna is represented by

1. Dipole antenna

2. Rhombic antenna

3. Yagi uda antenna

4. No such antenna exists in practice

Answer : 4

59. The gain of parabolic reflector antenna is proportional to

1. The diameter of the reflector

2. Square of the diameter of the reflector

3. Aperture area of the feed

4. None of these

Answer : 2

60. The parabolic reflector antenna are generally used to

1. Provide high gain

2. Provide pencil beam

3. Increase bandwidth of operation

4. None of these

Answer : 2

61. Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to

1. Increase gain of the system

2. Increase the bandwidth of the system

3. Reduce the size of the main reflector

4. Allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point

Answer : 4

62. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its

1. Circular polarization

2. Maneuverability

3. Broad bandwidth

4. Good front – to – back ratio

Answer : 1

63. The discone antenna is

1. A useful direction finding antenna

2. Used as a radar receiving antenna

3. Circularly polarized like other circular antenna

4. Useful as a VHF receiving antenna

Answer : 4

64. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signals because

1. They depend on straight line propagation which applies to microwaves only

2. Losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies

3. There are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower frequencies

4. They would be too bulky at lower frequencies

Answer : 4

65. The wavelength in a waveguide

1. Is greater than in free space

2. Depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength

3. Less than the free space wavelength

4. Equal to the free space wavelength

Answer : 1

66. The dominant mode of propagation is preferres with rectangular waveguide because(indicate false statement)

1. It leads to the smallest waveguide dimensions

2. The resulting impedance can be matched directly to coaxial lines

3. It is easier to excite than the other modes

4. Propagation of it without any spurious generation can be ensured

Answer : 2

67. The velocity of propagation (group velocity) in a waveguide is

1. Less than the free space velocity

2. Greater than the free space velocity

3. Equal to be free space velocity

4. None of these

Answer : 1

68. A wave can propagate in a waveguide if its cut off wavelength is

1. Greater than the free space wavelength

2. Less than the free space wavelength

3. Equal to be free space wavelength

4. None of these

Answer :3

69. The dominant mode in a rectangular waveguide is

a. TE11

b. TE10

c.TE20

d.TM11

Answer : 2

70. The characteristic wave impedance of a waveguide

1. Depends on the mode of propagation

2. Does not depend on the mode of propagation

3. Is same as the free space impedance

4. None of these

Answer : 1

71. A choke flange may be used to couple two waveguides

1. To help in the alignment of the waveguides

2. Because it is simpler than any other joint

3. To compensate the discontinuities at the joint

4. To increase the bandwidth of the system

Answer : 2

72. Frequencies in the UHF range is normally propagated by means of

1. Ground waves

2. Sky waves

3. Surface waves

4. Space waves

Answer : 4

73. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to them

1. Absorption

2. Attenuation

3. Reflection

4. Refraction

Answer : 2

74. High frequency waves are

1. Absorbed by the F2 layer

2. Reflected by the D layer

3. Affected by the solar cycle

4. Capable of use for long distance communications on the moon

Answer : 3

75. Indicate which one of following terms applies to troposcatter propagation

1. SIDS

2. Fading

3. Fraday rotation

4. Atmospheric storms

Answer : 2

76. When microwave signals follow the curvature of the earth, this in known as

1. Faraday effect

2. Ducting

3. Ionospheric reflection

4. Tropospheric scattering

Answer : 2

77. An ungrounded antenna near the ground:

1. Is unlikely to need an earth mat

2. Acts as a single antenna of twice the height

3. Must be horizontally polarized

4. Acts as an antenna array

Answer : 4

78. One of the following consists of non-resonant antenna:

1. The folded dipole

2. The rhombic antenna

3. The end fire array

4. The broad side array

Answer : 2

79. Balun is:

1. A circuit element to connect balance line to unbalanced antenna or line:

2. A circuit element to connect balance line to balanced line

3. A circuit element to connect unbalance line to unbalanced line

4. None of these

Answer : 1

80. The slotted line is used to measure:

1. Standing wave ratio

2. Load impedance

3. Source impedance

4. None of these

Answer : 1

81. In amplitude modulation Ec ( 1 + m Sin Wmt) Sin Wot, each side band amplitude will be:

1. Ecm/2

2. Ecm

3. Ec/m

4. 2Ec/m

Answer : 1

82. The dominant mode in a circular waveguide is

a. TE01

b.TE11

c.TM01

d.TM11

Answer : 3

83. A ferrite is

1. A non-conductor with magnetic properties

2. An inter metallic compound with particularly good conductivity

3. An insulator which heavily attenuates magnetic fields

4. A microwave semiconductor invented by farady

Answer : 1

84. The maximum power that may be handled by a ferrite component is limited by the

1. Curie temperature

2. Saturation magnetization

3. Line width

4. Gyro magnetic resonance

Answer : 1

85. The isolator is

1. Bidirectional

2. Unidirectional

3. Used to tap the power in a waveguide transmission line

4. Used for None of these of the above

Answer : 2

86. Isolator is generally used:

1. To protect the high power transmitter

2. To protect receiver

3. To protect the antenna

4. To avoid arcing in waveguides

Answer : 1

87. A TR tube is used

1. To protect the high power transmitter

2. To protect receiver

3. To avoid arcing in waveguides

4. For None of these of the above

Answer : 2

88. Rieke diagrams are used to select best operating conditions for

1. TWT amplifier

2. Klystron oscillator

3. Magnetron oscillator

4. Cross field amplifiers

Answer : 3

89. The gain bandwidth product of a microwave transistor FT, is the frequency at which the

1. Alpha of the transistor falls by 3 dB

2. Beta of the transistor falls by 3 dB

3. Beta of the transistor falls to unity

4. Power gain of the transistor falls to unity

Answer : 1

90. The cavity magnetron uses strapping to

1. Prevent mode jumping

2. Prevent cathode-back heating

3. Ensure bunching

4. Improve the phase-focussing effect

Answer : 4

91. The transferred – electron bulk effect occurs in

1. Germanium

2. Gallium arsenide

3. Silicon

4. Metal semiconductor junction

Answer : 2

92. One of the following is not used as a microwave mixer or detector

1. Crystal diode

2. Schottky – barrier diode

3. Backward diode

4. PIN diode

Answer : 4

93. SAW devices may be used as:

1. transmission media like stripline

2. filters

3. UHF amplifiers

4. Oscillators at millimeter frequencies

Answer : 2

94. Surface acoustic waves propagate in:

1. Gallium arsenide

2. Indium phosphide

3. Stripline

4. Quartz crystal

Answer : 4

95. A parametric amplifier has an input and output frequency of 2.25 GHz, and is pumped at 4.5 GHz is a

1. Traveling wave amplifier

2. Degenerate amplifier

3. Lower-side band up converter

4. Upper-side band up converter

Answer : 2

96. The negative resistance in a tunnel diode

1. Is maximum at the peak point of the characteristic

2. Is available between the peak and valley points

3. Is maximum at the valley point

4. May be improved by the reverse bias

Answer : 2

97. Microwave links repeaters are typically 50KM apart

1. Because of atmospheric attenuation

2. Because of output tube power limitations

3. Because of Earth’s curvature

4. To ensure that the applied voltage is not excessive

Answer : 3

98. Microwave links are generally preferred to coaxial for television transmission because

1. They have less overall phase distortion

2. They are cheaper

3. Of their greater bandwidths

4. Of their relative immunity to impulse noise

Answer : 1

99. A geostationary satellite

1. Is motionless in space(except for its spin)

2. Is not really stationary at all, but orbits the earth with a 24 hour period

3. Appears stationary over Earth’s magnetic pole

4. Is located at a height of 35800KM to ensure global coverage

Answer : 2

100. The geostationary satellite launched by India are called

1. INTELSAT

2. INSAT

3. COMSAT

4. MARISAT

Answer : 2

101. After a target has been acquired the best scanning system for tracking is

1. Nodding

2. Spiral

3. Conical

4. Helical

Answer : 3

102. The Doppler frequency increases as the target

1. Approaches the radar

2. Recedes the radar

3. Moves perpendicular to the beam

4. Does not depend on the target velocity

Answer : 1

103. The Doppler effect is used in (indicate the false statement)

1. Moving target plotting on the PPI

2. MTI system

3. FM Radar

4. CW Radar

Answer : 1

104. Solution to the blind speed problem is to

1. Change the Doppler frequency

2. Vary the PRF

3. Use monopulse

4. Use MTI

Answer : 2

105. The A-scope displays

1. Target position and range

2. Target range but not position

3. Target position but not range

4. Neither range nor position but only velocity

Answer : 2

106. In the colour television system the sub carrier frequency in MHz is approximately

a. 3.58

b.4.5

c. 45.75

d. 5.58

Answer : a

107. In television 4: 3 : represents

1. The interlace ratio

2. The maximum horizontal deflection

3. Aspect ratio

4. The ratio of the two diagonals of picture tube

Answer : 3

108. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during the:

1. Horizontal blanking

2. Vertical blanking

3. The serrations

4. Horizontal retrace

Answer : 2

109. The number of lines per field in Indian television system is:

a. 625

b. 312.5

c. 525

d. 262.5

Answer : 2

110. The number of frames in Indian TV system is:

a. 50

b. 60

c. 25

d.30

Answer : a

111. In a TV receiver the colour killer:

1. Cuts off the chromastages during monochrome reception

2. Ensures that no colour is transmitted to monochrome receivers

3. Prevents colour overloading

4. Makes sure that the colour burst is not mistaken for sync pulses

Answer : 1

112. A parametric amplifier must be cooled

1. Because parametric amplification generates a lot of hest

2. To increase bandwidth

3. Because it cannot operate at room temperature

4. To improve the noise performance

Answer : 4

113. If the peak transmitted power in a Radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of

a. 2

b. 4

c.8

d. 16

Answer : d

114. Telephone traffic is measured

1. With echo

2. By relative congestion

3. In terms of the grade of service

4. In erlangs

Answer : 1

`115. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of:

a. O2

b. 2

c. 4

d. 8

Answer : c

116. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)

1. Make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise

2. Make target tracking easier with conical scanning

3. Increase the maximum range

4. Have no effect on the range resolution

Answer : 3

117. The bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the

1. Pulse width

2. Pulse repetition frequency

3. Pulse interval

4. Square root of the peak transmitted power

Answer : 1

118. If d is the pulse width, T is pulse repetition period and P is the peak power, the duty ratio is

a. T/d

b.P/T

c.P/d

d.d/T

Answer : d

119. If d is the duty ratio and P is the peak power in a pulsed transmitter, then the average power is

a. P.d

b. P.2d

c.P/d

d. P/2d

Answer : a

120. If the return echo arrives after the allocated pulse interval

1. It will interfere with operation of the transmitter

2. The receive might be overloaded

3. It will not be received

4. The target will appear closer than it really is

Answer : 4

ROUND 2

1How many of the integers between 25 and 45 are even?

A) 21

B) 20

C) 11

D) 10

E) 9

2 If taxi fares were Rs.1.00 for the first 1/5 mile and Rs.0.20 for each 1/5 miles thereafter, the taxi fare for a 3-mile ride was

A) Rs.1.56

B) Rs.2.40

C) Rs.3.00

D) Rs.3.80

E) Rs.4.20

3. A computer routine was developed to generate two numbers (X, Y) the first being a random number between 0 and 100 inclusive, and the second being less than or equal to the square root of the first. Each of the following pairs satisfies the routine EXCEPT

A) (99.10)

B) (85.9)

C) (50.7)

D) (1.1)

E) (1.0)

4.A warehouse had a square floor with are 10,000 sq. metres. A rectangular addition was built along one entire side of the warehouse that increased the floor by one-half as much as the original floor. How many metres did the addition extend beyond the original building?

A) 10

B) 20

C) 50

D) 200

E) 500

5. A digital wristwatch was set accurately at 8.30 a.m. and then lost 2 seconds every 5 minutes. What time was indicated on the watch at 6.30 p.m. of the same day if the watch operated continuously that time?

A) 5:56

B) 5:58

C) 6.00

D) 6:23

E) 6:20

6. A 5 litre jug contains 4 litres of a saltwater solution that is 15 percent salt. If 1.5 litres of the solution spilts out of jug, and the jug is then filled to capacity with water, approximately what percent of the resulting solution in the jug is salt?

A).5%

B) 9.5%

C) 10.5%

D) 12%

E) 15%

7. It was calculated that 75 men could complete a piece of work in 20 days. When work was scheduled to commence, it was found necessary to send 25 men to another project. How much longer will it take to complete the work?

8. A student divided a number by 2/3 when he required to multiply by 3/2. Calculate the percentage of error in his result.

9. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg. His gain is …%.

10. A software engineer has the capability of thinking 100 lines of code in five minutes and can type 100 lines of code in 10 minutes. He takes a break for five minutes after every ten minutes. How many lines of codes will he complete typing after an hour?

11.There are total 15 people. 7 speaks french and 8 speaks spanish. 3 do not speak any

language. Which part of total people speaks both languages?

Ans: 1/5

12. A jogger wants to save ¼th of his jogging time. He should increase his speed by how much %age?

Ans: 33.33 %

13. a is an integer. Dividing 89 & 125 gives remainders 4 & 6 respectively. Find a ?

Ans: 17

14. A Child is saying numbers 1, 2, 3, 4. When he says 1 Another child puts white marble in a box. On saying 2 he puts Blue marble and on saying 3 he puts red marble. When child says 4 other child take out white and blue marble. Child says some no. in a sequence then questions are based on the no. of marbles in the box. Like this

1,1,2,3,1, 4, 1,1,3,2,2,4,111…

a) Find the no. of Blue marble in the box

b) Find the no. of White

c) No. of red marbles

15 A man crosses a circle of perimeter 35 m in 44 sec and he runs a hexagon of 42 m side. In how many second he finishes the complete perimeter of the hexagon?

16. A+b do a work in 6 days. A+c do the work in 10 days, c+a in 7.5 days. How manydays will it take for a+b+c to do the work and also find the number of days required by a alone?

17. Complete the series 7 49 56 392………….

18. A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle. What is the perimeter of the hexagon in relation with the radius of the circle?

19. A circular path has a perimeter of 120m.a, b,c travel at 5 7 15m/s respectively. They start simultaneously. At what time do they meet next?

20. Totally there are 12 pipes. Some pipes fill the tank and some empties the tank (data will be given). If all the pipes are opened simultaneously when will the tank be filled?

21.Average age of 24 students is 36. When the age of teacher is added the average age is increased by 1 year. What is the age of the teacher?

22. Water and milk are mixed in the ratio 2:1,5:3 and 9:4.when all the mixtures of equal volume are mixed together what is the ratio water and milk in the resulting solution?

23. Average rate of five orange and four apples is 12 and 7 orange and 8 apples are 86. Find the total rate of 24 orange and 24 apples.

24.In how many ways the letters in the word MANAGEMENT can be arranged such that A’s does not come together?

25. A give B a start of 20 sec and leads by 20m. When he starts off 25 sec he finishes at the same time. What is the speed of A. (wordings not sure)?

25) A father has six children .all the children are born at regular intervels.if the sum of their ages of all the children and father is 186. calculate the age of the elder son, when the younger sons age is 3?

26. A man was engaged on a job for 30 days on the condition that he would get a wage of Rs. 10 for the day he works, but he have to pay a fine of Rs. 2 for each day of his absence. If he gets Rs. 216 at the end, he was absent for work for ... days.

27. A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days, employed 75 men each working 8 hours daily. After 90 days, only 2/7 of the work was completed. Increasing the number of men by ________ each working now for 10 hours daily, the work can be completed in time.

28. Rs 50000 is divided into two parts

One part is given to a person with 10% interest and another part is given to a person with 20 % interest.At the end of first yearn he gets profit 7000 . Find money given by 10% ?

29. Time shown by a watch is 2.20 .Find the angle between them ?

30. Avg cost of 5apples+4 mangoes=rs.36

Avg cost of 7 apples + 8 mangoes=rs.48

Find total cost of 24 mangoes and 24 apples?

KPIT Placement Paper : Integra Placement Paper delhi kalkaji 21 August 2011

Integra Latest Selection Procedure,Integra Solved Free Sample Placement Papers, Integra Previous Question Papers with Answers, Integra Technical Questions and Answers, Integra Interview Questions and Answers,Integra Candidate Experiences

Integra micro (p) Lmtd.Banglore exam on 22 aug 06-sample paper

Written xam :1)appititude-50 questions Time:45min

2)technical-25 question Time :30min

3)program writing-3 question Time:30min

The criteria/eligibility for getting through wid aptitude is 65+% ,onl wen u r thru wid appti then u r given technical paper,

QUESTIONS :

1)speed&distance

ans:c)300

2)a flow chart given u hav to put given values into it n find out the answer.

On this flow chart there r 4 questions just appy the given value n fin answer.

3)is based on some hockey team 14 r wearing team shirts n 9 r wearing team trousers how many of them r wearing full team dress??

4) is on logic reasoning

there is a XYZ company it carries 3 personnel’s in library dept. ABC and 5 personnel’s DEFGH in mng. dept. ,it needs to set up another office and require staff from these 8 personnel’s 2 from library dept. and 3 from mng. Dept.?

some data is given on them that follows like this:

a) A and C fight each other so they cannot b together.

b) D and F cannot b wid each other

c) D and E never had a talk wid each other so they cannot coordinate.

d) So on……

There were 4-5 questions on it .

5)if the avg. of 7 numbers is 5, and avg. of another 5 number is 7,what is the avg. of 12 numbers?

6) from how many balls can u make a 4 tier- 3 sided pyramid?

a)22

b)21

c)20

d)18

e) none of these

7)data records is collection of

a)fields

b)files

c)bits

d)..

e)..

ans :fields

8)which protocol is used for sending mail on internet?

a)http

b)smpt

c)www

d)ftp

e)…

ans: smpt

9)3 question on series completion…………

10)micro processor 8086 is ------ bit processor?

Ans :16 bit

11)the parallel interface is:

a) signal broken into bits and sent 1 by 1 on single line.

b)Used to connect printer.

c)….

d)….

e)none of these.

Ans: none of these.

12)select the odd one out:

a)tcp

b)rlogin

c)ftp

d)tftp

e)telnet

ans:ftp

13)2 more questions on data::

{a} suppose there r 1-10 number in sequence a b c d e f g h, not in that order

a)d is 3 less than a.

b)b is in middle.

c)f is much less than a, and g is greater than f

d)…

4 question on this data.

{b} seating arrangement.

4 question on it.

14) question on simple solving 13and 15 r two number that gives remiender 1 when divided by a number? Ans:4

15) 1 question on work time photocopier prints –number of copies, if efficiency dec/inc by some % then hw many copies ?

16) Rest r very very easy questions u need not worry, even there is no need to study thoroughly practice these type of questions just n just. Rest is on your mental ability

, don’t worry abt time; time is sufficient for type of paper.

I hav put my best to jot down all sorts of questions rest ne help can contact me on my mail id.

TECHNICAL :

Part is not based on any c /c++ basis it is general wat u hav done in ur curriculum during engg…

25 questions 30 min cutt off is very low

1) 2) 3) r on tree

ans:1)inorder traversal{leftnode,root,rightnode}

2)post order traversal{leftnode,rightnode,root}

3)preorder traversal{root,leftnode,rightnode}

4)is a C sinnpet:ans :none of these

5)CRC is used for ans:detection of errors

6)hash table used for ?ans:quick access

7) n 8) is on ven diagram ?

ans : 7) 11

8)5

9)semaphore is used for

ans:synchronization of processes.

10)based on binary operator\?

11)based on turing machine?

12)based on unix ?

ans :execute permission is used for searching .

13)based on theory of computation subject(TOC)

14)based on data base

15)general questions ..

programming part

3 questions 30 min

1)based on sorting 100 numbers

2)count the number of lines and if number of lines having character count >72.

3)..?

Integra micro (p) Lmtd.Banglore exam on 22 aug 06-sample paper

Written xam :1)appititude-50 questions Time:45min

2)technical-25 question Time :30min

3)program writing-3 question Time:30min

The criteria/eligibility for getting through wid aptitude is 65+% ,onl wen u r thru wid appti then u r given technical paper,

QUESTIONS :

1)speed&distance

ans:c)300

2)a flow chart given u hav to put given values into it n find out the answer.

On this flow chart there r 4 questions just appy the given value n fin answer.

3)is based on some hockey team 14 r wearing team shirts n 9 r wearing team trousers how many of them r wearing full team dress??

4) is on logic reasoning

there is a XYZ company it carries 3 personnel’s in library dept. ABC and 5 personnel’s DEFGH in mng. dept. ,it needs to set up another office and require staff from these 8 personnel’s 2 from library dept. and 3 from mng. Dept.?

some data is given on them that follows like this:

a) A and C fight each other so they cannot b together.

b) D and F cannot b wid each other

c) D and E never had a talk wid each other so they cannot coordinate.

d) So on……

There were 4-5 questions on it .

5)if the avg. of 7 numbers is 5, and avg. of another 5 number is 7,what is the avg. of 12 numbers?

6) from how many balls can u make a 4 tier- 3 sided pyramid?

a)22

b)21

c)20

d)18

e) none of these

7)data records is collection of

a)fields

b)files

c)bits

d)..

e)..

ans :fields

8)which protocol is used for sending mail on internet?

a)http

b)smpt

c)www

d)ftp

e)…

ans: smpt

9)3 question on series completion…………

10)micro processor 8086 is ------ bit processor?

Ans :16 bit

11)the parallel interface is:

a) signal broken into bits and sent 1 by 1 on single line.

b)Used to connect printer.

c)….

d)….

e)none of these.

Ans: none of these.

12)select the odd one out:

a)tcp

b)rlogin

c)ftp

d)tftp

e)telnet

ans:ftp

13)2 more questions on data::

{a} suppose there r 1-10 number in sequence a b c d e f g h, not in that order

a)d is 3 less than a.

b)b is in middle.

c)f is much less than a, and g is greater than f

d)…

4 question on this data.

{b} seating arrangement.

4 question on it.

14) question on simple solving 13and 15 r two number that gives remiender 1 when divided by a number? Ans:4

15) 1 question on work time photocopier prints –number of copies, if efficiency dec/inc by some % then hw many copies ?

16) Rest r very very easy questions u need not worry, even there is no need to study thoroughly practice these type of questions just n just. Rest is on your mental ability

, don’t worry abt time; time is sufficient for type of paper.

I hav put my best to jot down all sorts of questions rest ne help can contact me on my mail id.

TECHNICAL :

Part is not based on any c /c++ basis it is general wat u hav done in ur curriculum during engg…

25 questions 30 min cutt off is very low

1) 2) 3) r on tree

ans:1)inorder traversal{leftnode,root,rightnode}

2)post order traversal{leftnode,rightnode,root}

3)preorder traversal{root,leftnode,rightnode}

4)is a C sinnpet:ans :none of these

5)CRC is used for ans:detection of errors

6)hash table used for ?ans:quick access

7) n 8) is on ven diagram ?

ans : 7) 11

8)5

9)semaphore is used for

ans:synchronization of processes.

10)based on binary operator\?

11)based on turing machine?

12)based on unix ?

ans :execute permission is used for searching .

13)based on theory of computation subject(TOC)

14)based on data base

15)general questions ..

programming part

3 questions 30 min

1)based on sorting 100 numbers

2)count the number of lines and if number of lines having character count >72.

3)..?

KPIT Placement Paper : LCube Technologies Placement Paper Tirupathi 14 February 2011

I am happy to present PRESENT paper in freshersworld for L cube technologies written test.

It is easy for cse students because in written test more bits are come from c++,java, and easy aptitude.

APTITUDE:20 BITS

TECHNICAL:30 BITS TOTAL DURATION :ONE HOUR

APTITUDE:

i AM GIVING JUST MODELS NOT EXACT VALUES

1.WHEN x+3y=10 and 2x-10y=8 then 2x+3y=?(2 problems on these type)

2.one problem based on time and work(

One person do the walk in 5/6 th of usual speed then he reaches 40 min late.Then what is usual speed?

3.ONE SEQUENCE PROBLEM (SORRY I DON,T REMEMBER)

4.

TECHNICAL:

iN TECHNICAL C++,JAVA BITS WERE GIVEN

1.REGARDING PACKGES AND CLASSES MEANS WHAT ARE JAVA.UTIL PACKAGE SUBCLASSES,AN

2.WHAT IS SUBCLASS OF JAVA.(SOME PACKAGES

3.TO GIVE THE WARNING WHICH COMPONENT IS USED IN WINDOW

4.ONE SIMPLE PROGRAM

INT N=0;

SWITCH(N)

case 1:System.out.println("1");

{

case 2: System.out.println("2");

case 3: Syatem.out.println("3);

case 4:System.out.println("4");

}

the program answer choice is

a.1234

b.error

c.4321

d.not complled

ans:a (no doubt)

5.WHICH ONE IS NOT A KEYWORD

a.case

b.while

c.const

d.assert

ans:d

6.SOME QUESTIONS ARE JUST THEY GIVE PROGRAMS AND WHAT IS THE OUTPUT(EASY)

7.PROGRAM: C++

FLOAT: T=5.600;

COUT<

WHAT IS OUTPUT:

a.ERROR

b.5

C.5.600

d.COMPILE ERROR

OURPUT:C

8. PROGRAM :JAVA (IF ANY SYNTATIC ERRORS plz iGNORE tHIS IS MY REQUEST)

SUBBU(DOUBLE X,LONG Y,INT Z);

AND GIVE THE STATEMENT LIKE System.out.println();

this question answer in based on given parameters on function .

It is easy for cse students because in written test more bits are come from c++,java, and easy aptitude.

APTITUDE:20 BITS

TECHNICAL:30 BITS TOTAL DURATION :ONE HOUR

APTITUDE:

i AM GIVING JUST MODELS NOT EXACT VALUES

1.WHEN x+3y=10 and 2x-10y=8 then 2x+3y=?(2 problems on these type)

2.one problem based on time and work(

One person do the walk in 5/6 th of usual speed then he reaches 40 min late.Then what is usual speed?

3.ONE SEQUENCE PROBLEM (SORRY I DON,T REMEMBER)

4.

TECHNICAL:

iN TECHNICAL C++,JAVA BITS WERE GIVEN

1.REGARDING PACKGES AND CLASSES MEANS WHAT ARE JAVA.UTIL PACKAGE SUBCLASSES,AN

2.WHAT IS SUBCLASS OF JAVA.(SOME PACKAGES

3.TO GIVE THE WARNING WHICH COMPONENT IS USED IN WINDOW

4.ONE SIMPLE PROGRAM

INT N=0;

SWITCH(N)

case 1:System.out.println("1");

{

case 2: System.out.println("2");

case 3: Syatem.out.println("3);

case 4:System.out.println("4");

}

the program answer choice is

a.1234

b.error

c.4321

d.not complled

ans:a (no doubt)

5.WHICH ONE IS NOT A KEYWORD

a.case

b.while

c.const

d.assert

ans:d

6.SOME QUESTIONS ARE JUST THEY GIVE PROGRAMS AND WHAT IS THE OUTPUT(EASY)

7.PROGRAM: C++

FLOAT: T=5.600;

COUT<

WHAT IS OUTPUT:

a.ERROR

b.5

C.5.600

d.COMPILE ERROR

OURPUT:C

8. PROGRAM :JAVA (IF ANY SYNTATIC ERRORS plz iGNORE tHIS IS MY REQUEST)

SUBBU(DOUBLE X,LONG Y,INT Z);

AND GIVE THE STATEMENT LIKE System.out.println();

this question answer in based on given parameters on function .

KPIT Placement Paper : Nagarro Placement Paper New Delhi 29 July 2012

Nagarro visited our campus(Bharati Vidyapeeth, Paschim Vihar) for placements. They conduct 2 rounds on the first day.

1. Aptitude Test - 60min

20 questions of maths(trigo, mensuration, ratios, percentage, mean etc)

20 questions of analytical/logical ability

The cut off for this round is 60%. Negative marking is there.

2. Coding Test - 75min

It consists of 3 questions which can be attempted in any language you want or you may write pseudo-code if you dont remember syntax of any language. The

code should be as efficient as possible. The questions were:-

Ques1 : Given two file paths inputFilePath and outputFilePath, write a function void Remove Comments(char inputFilePath[], char outputFilePath[]) suchthat the contents of file referred by inputFilePath are copied to the file

given by outputFilePath after removing the comments. In other words, first file contains a C program which should be copied to the second file excluding the comments.

Ques2 : Define a function int[] reverse(int a[], int n) to reverse the first n elements of the integer array a. Eg reverse([2,5,3,4], 3) should give output [3,5,2,4]

Use constant memory and O(n) complexity.

Ques3 : Write a function char[] GenerateNextDate(char[]) such that if a date of the format "23Jan2012" is input, the next date should be produced.

Eg : Input - "12Dec1987"

Output - "13Dec1987"

Please remember the input and output are both strings.

Each ques is of 5 marks. Cut off for this round is 7/15.

If you clear these rounds, you will be called to their Gurgaon office where there will be another coding test of higher difficulty with same pattern as previous test - 3ques/5 marks each. I remember 2 questions.

Ques 1 : To print

1 2 3 4 5

2 1 2 3 4

3 2 1 2 3

4 3 2 1 2

5 4 3 2 1

Ques 2: Given an array, separate positives and negatives.

For eg. Input array - [9,4,-3,-2,1,-1,5,7,-9,-5]

Output array – [9,4,1,5,7,-3,-2,-1,-9,-5]

After this test, you will have a face-off technical in which you’ll be asked questions based on the solutions you have given for these problems and the logic you have applied, no other questions on any subject.

An HR round takes place after this, it is just a formality. So the main thing is you have to write good code that’s it. You will be selected.

1. Aptitude Test - 60min

20 questions of maths(trigo, mensuration, ratios, percentage, mean etc)

20 questions of analytical/logical ability

The cut off for this round is 60%. Negative marking is there.

2. Coding Test - 75min

It consists of 3 questions which can be attempted in any language you want or you may write pseudo-code if you dont remember syntax of any language. The

code should be as efficient as possible. The questions were:-

Ques1 : Given two file paths inputFilePath and outputFilePath, write a function void Remove Comments(char inputFilePath[], char outputFilePath[]) suchthat the contents of file referred by inputFilePath are copied to the file

given by outputFilePath after removing the comments. In other words, first file contains a C program which should be copied to the second file excluding the comments.

Ques2 : Define a function int[] reverse(int a[], int n) to reverse the first n elements of the integer array a. Eg reverse([2,5,3,4], 3) should give output [3,5,2,4]

Use constant memory and O(n) complexity.

Ques3 : Write a function char[] GenerateNextDate(char[]) such that if a date of the format "23Jan2012" is input, the next date should be produced.

Eg : Input - "12Dec1987"

Output - "13Dec1987"

Please remember the input and output are both strings.

Each ques is of 5 marks. Cut off for this round is 7/15.

If you clear these rounds, you will be called to their Gurgaon office where there will be another coding test of higher difficulty with same pattern as previous test - 3ques/5 marks each. I remember 2 questions.

Ques 1 : To print

1 2 3 4 5

2 1 2 3 4

3 2 1 2 3

4 3 2 1 2

5 4 3 2 1

Ques 2: Given an array, separate positives and negatives.

For eg. Input array - [9,4,-3,-2,1,-1,5,7,-9,-5]

Output array – [9,4,1,5,7,-3,-2,-1,-9,-5]

After this test, you will have a face-off technical in which you’ll be asked questions based on the solutions you have given for these problems and the logic you have applied, no other questions on any subject.

An HR round takes place after this, it is just a formality. So the main thing is you have to write good code that’s it. You will be selected.

KPIT Placement Paper : AgreeYa Interview other 20 Augest 2011

Written pattern

1. 90 min aptitude

2. 60 min c++ question

I remember few question

Agreeya Aptitude Questions

1 Acube painted with white paint then cut into 125 smalls cube. Find nuber of cube which has 2 side are painted like that

One question on algebric eqation

ax2+bx+c=0, dx2+ex+f both have equal roots then which conditions will get satisfied

One question on arrange ments of people sequence like ram is sitting lift to shaym you have to find proper position of each person

One q on blood relations

c++

very tuff techanical questions

virtual constructors exixts

which class write on merory of array

Bye

1. 90 min aptitude

2. 60 min c++ question

I remember few question

Agreeya Aptitude Questions

1 Acube painted with white paint then cut into 125 smalls cube. Find nuber of cube which has 2 side are painted like that

One question on algebric eqation

ax2+bx+c=0, dx2+ex+f both have equal roots then which conditions will get satisfied

One question on arrange ments of people sequence like ram is sitting lift to shaym you have to find proper position of each person

One q on blood relations

c++

very tuff techanical questions

virtual constructors exixts

which class write on merory of array

Bye

KPIT Placement Paper : Aditi aptitude and reasoning 03 April 2011

Aditi Sample placement paper,Aditi latest 2012-2013 Test paper,Aditi campus recruitment written test questions Aditi solved placement paper questions with answers,Aditi latest selection procedure,Aditi Aptitude and technical and technical hr interview proceeures,aditi off campus recruitment papers Aditi previous years questions,Aditi written test jhas 50 questions,1 hour,min CGPA 5.8, Question paper in two sets A & B 3 round of interview

ADITI PAPER ON 4th APRIL 2011,computational,logical reasoning,aptitude,anlytical questions

Aditi SECTION 1 (LOGICAL REASONING)

Questions :

1. Each floor of a 3 storeyed building is occupied and a total of 15 people live in the building. How many live on the first floor?

1) The no. of people living in the first floor is an odd number

2) The no. of people living on the first floor double the number living on the second floor

2. Program 1 can be implemented

1) Program 1 is tested and error free

2) The implementation site is ready

3. The sum of digits of a 5 digit no. is 10. The digit in the ten thousandth place is cube of that of units place. what is the number.

1) The digits in the thousandth, hundredth and tenth place are equal

2) The digit in the units and tenth place are not equal

4. If I deposit Rs.1000 in the bank now and withdraw the amount only at the end of the year how much will I get?

1) The rate of compound interest is 12% per year

2) The interest is deposited in the account at the end of every six months

5. Variable "X" is an address variable.

1) The value of variable "X" is "adbcf"

2) Program has a statement X =&Y

6. Is white color the best reflector of light?

1) The lower a color,s reflection index the better its power of reflection

2) White has a reflection index of 0.28

7. Does Mehta work in an advertising agency?

1) Mehta begins work at 9 am in the morning and works till 9 in the night

2) Mehta is a copywriter

8. Is it true that Maggi Noodles success was largely due to its ability to satisfy a latent consumer need?

More Questions:

1) Before the entry of Maggi Noodles, Others did not have access to a food item which was convenient to prepare and could be consumed between meals.

2) Maggi Noodles was an instant hit with ladies who had children in the range of 10 to 12 years

9. Sachin wrote Program 1

1) It is found in the directory

2) Sachin tested Program 1

10. Are all Argots also Knicks?

1) All Argots are Drones

2) All Drones are Knicks

11. Does classical music aid plant growth?

1) Music aids in the development of sugar in plants.

2) In an experiment conducted, its was observed that plants exposed to classical music grew by 5cm more than plants not exposed to classical music in the same period.

12. Are cheques the safest method of making a payment.

1) Cheques are more convenient than cash in making and resolving payments.

2) Payment by cheques eliminate the risk involved in handling cash.

13. Networking is working fine.

1) Computer A is able to talk to Computer B

2) Both Computer A & B are Pentium Machines.

14. Is it true that smiling is easier than frowning?

1) Smiling requires the movement of 14 facial muscles while frowning requires the movement of 24 facial muscles.

2) Moving every facial muscles requires the same amount of effort.

15. Is it true that the Carpenter lives on the first floor.?

1) the Barber lives two floors above the black smith who in turn stays one floor above the carpenter.

2) the blacksmith lives two floors above the weaver who lives one floor below the carpenter in a three storeyed building.

SECTION 3 - ANALYTICAL

Questions 16-19 are based on the following: At a formal dinner for 8, the host and the hostess are seated at opposite ends of a rectangular table, with 3 persons along each side. Each man must be seated next to at least to 1 woman, and vice versa. Alan is opposite to Diana, who is not the hostess. George has a woman on his right and is opposite to a woman. Helga is at the hostess,s right, next to Frank. One person is seated between Belinda and Carol.

16.The 8th person present, Eric must be

(a) the host

(b) seated to Diana,s right

(c) seated opposite to Carol

(a)a only (b)c only (c)b and c (d)a, b and c

17. If each person is placed directly opposite to his or her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married.

a) George and Helga

b) Belinda and Frank

(c) Carol and Frank

(d) George and Belinda

18. Which person is not seated next to a person of the same sex.?

(a)Alan (b) Belinda (c) Carol (d) Diana

19. George is bothered by the cigarette smoke of his neighbor and exchanges seats with the person 4 places to his left. Which of the following must be true following the exchange?

(a) No one is seated between two persons of the opposite sex.

(b) one side of the table consists entirely of persons of the same sex.

(c) Either the host or hostess has changed seats

(a) A only (b)C only (c)A and B (d)B and C

Questions 20 - 22 are based on the following: The hotel Miramar has two wings, the east wing and the west wing. Some east wing rooms but not all, have an ocean view. All west wing rooms have a harbor view. The charge for all rooms is identical except for the following. There is an extra charge for all harbor view rooms on or above third floor. There is an extra charge for all ocean view rooms except those without balcony. Some harbor view rooms on the first two floors and some east wing rooms without ocean view have kitchen facilities for which there is an extra charge. Only the ocean view and harbor view rooms have balconies.

20. A guest may avoid an extra charge by requesting

(a) A west wing room on one of the first two floors.

(b) A west wing room on the fourth floor without balcony.

(c) An East wing room without balcony. (d)Any room without kitchen.

21. Which of the following must be true if all conditions are as stated?

(a) All rooms above the third floor involves extra charges.

(b) No room without an ocean or harbor view or kitchen facilities involves extra charge.

(c) There is no extra charge for an east wing room without ocean view.

(d) There is no extra charge for any room without Kitchen facilities.

22. which of the following must be false if all conditions are as stated?

(a) some ocean viewing rooms do not involve an extra charge

(b) all rooms with kitchen facilities involve an extra charge

(c) some west viewing rooms above the second floor do not involve an extra charge

Questions 23 to 26 are based on the following: Four cards of different suits are dealt one apiece to A, B, C and D.

B says: Mine is not a club. A says: Mine is not a spade.

D says: Mine is not a diamond. C says: Mine is not a spade.

A says: Mine is not a hear

23. A held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d) spade

24. B held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

25. C held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

26. D held

(a) heart (b) clubs (c) diamonds (d)spade

Questions 27 to 29 are based on the following: In a magical temple there are 3 doorways each leading to the interior of the temple. Every door way has an idol just inside. The magical powers of the temple doubles the flowers a devotee carries every time he/she passes under a doorway. Each devotee has to pass on straight through the doorway and cannot retrace his steps till he comes to the innermost idol.

27. Ram carries X flowers at each idol he places an identical number of flowers Y. He returns from the temple without a single flower. X was most probably

(a)2 (b)5 (c)6 (d)7

28. In the situation above Y was most probably

(a) 8(b)5(c)6(d)7

29. If Sita took 8 flowers to the temple and offered 4 flowers each to the first two idols then by the time she faces the third idol she has

(a)40 flowers (b)36 flowers (c)52 flowers (d) 56 flowers

aditiSECTION 4 - COMPUTATIONAL

30. 2 passengers have together 560 kgs of luggage and are charged for the excess above the weight allowed at 10$ and 26$. If all the luggage had belonged to one of them he would have to pay 46$. The amount of luggage each passenger is allowed without any charge is

(a)100 kg (b)150 kg (c)160 kg (d)Insufficient data

31. 6 pigs cost the same as 9 sheep. 27 sheep cost the same as 30 goats. 50 goats cost the same as 3 elephants. If two elephants cost $4800, then the cost of one pig in dollar is

(a)120 (b)240 (c)105 (d)250

32. A wholesaler allows a discount of 20 % on the list price to the retailer. The retailer sells at 5% below the list price. If the customer pays Rs.19 for an article what profit is made by the retailer on it?

(a)Rs.2 (b)Rs.3 (c)Rs.4 (d)Rs.4.5

33. A circular metal plate of even thickness has 12 holes of radius 1 cm drilled into it. As a result the plate lost 1/6th its original weight. The radius of the circular plate is

(a)16sqrt2 (b)8sqrt2 (c)32sqrt2 (d)sqrt723

34. 3 machines a,b,c can be used to produce a product. Machine a will take 60 hours to produce a million units. Machine b is twice as fast as machine a. Machine c takes the same amount of time as machine a and b taken together. How much time will be required to produce a million units if all the three machines are used simultaneously?

ADITI PAPER ON 4th APRIL 2011,computational,logical reasoning,aptitude,anlytical questions

Aditi SECTION 1 (LOGICAL REASONING)

Questions :

1. Each floor of a 3 storeyed building is occupied and a total of 15 people live in the building. How many live on the first floor?

1) The no. of people living in the first floor is an odd number

2) The no. of people living on the first floor double the number living on the second floor

2. Program 1 can be implemented

1) Program 1 is tested and error free

2) The implementation site is ready

3. The sum of digits of a 5 digit no. is 10. The digit in the ten thousandth place is cube of that of units place. what is the number.

1) The digits in the thousandth, hundredth and tenth place are equal

2) The digit in the units and tenth place are not equal

4. If I deposit Rs.1000 in the bank now and withdraw the amount only at the end of the year how much will I get?

1) The rate of compound interest is 12% per year

2) The interest is deposited in the account at the end of every six months

5. Variable "X" is an address variable.

1) The value of variable "X" is "adbcf"

2) Program has a statement X =&Y

6. Is white color the best reflector of light?

1) The lower a color,s reflection index the better its power of reflection

2) White has a reflection index of 0.28

7. Does Mehta work in an advertising agency?

1) Mehta begins work at 9 am in the morning and works till 9 in the night

2) Mehta is a copywriter

8. Is it true that Maggi Noodles success was largely due to its ability to satisfy a latent consumer need?

More Questions:

1) Before the entry of Maggi Noodles, Others did not have access to a food item which was convenient to prepare and could be consumed between meals.

2) Maggi Noodles was an instant hit with ladies who had children in the range of 10 to 12 years

9. Sachin wrote Program 1

1) It is found in the directory

2) Sachin tested Program 1

10. Are all Argots also Knicks?

1) All Argots are Drones

2) All Drones are Knicks

11. Does classical music aid plant growth?

1) Music aids in the development of sugar in plants.

2) In an experiment conducted, its was observed that plants exposed to classical music grew by 5cm more than plants not exposed to classical music in the same period.

12. Are cheques the safest method of making a payment.

1) Cheques are more convenient than cash in making and resolving payments.

2) Payment by cheques eliminate the risk involved in handling cash.

13. Networking is working fine.

1) Computer A is able to talk to Computer B

2) Both Computer A & B are Pentium Machines.

14. Is it true that smiling is easier than frowning?

1) Smiling requires the movement of 14 facial muscles while frowning requires the movement of 24 facial muscles.

2) Moving every facial muscles requires the same amount of effort.

15. Is it true that the Carpenter lives on the first floor.?

1) the Barber lives two floors above the black smith who in turn stays one floor above the carpenter.

2) the blacksmith lives two floors above the weaver who lives one floor below the carpenter in a three storeyed building.

SECTION 3 - ANALYTICAL

Questions 16-19 are based on the following: At a formal dinner for 8, the host and the hostess are seated at opposite ends of a rectangular table, with 3 persons along each side. Each man must be seated next to at least to 1 woman, and vice versa. Alan is opposite to Diana, who is not the hostess. George has a woman on his right and is opposite to a woman. Helga is at the hostess,s right, next to Frank. One person is seated between Belinda and Carol.

16.The 8th person present, Eric must be

(a) the host

(b) seated to Diana,s right

(c) seated opposite to Carol

(a)a only (b)c only (c)b and c (d)a, b and c

17. If each person is placed directly opposite to his or her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married.

a) George and Helga

b) Belinda and Frank

(c) Carol and Frank

(d) George and Belinda

18. Which person is not seated next to a person of the same sex.?

(a)Alan (b) Belinda (c) Carol (d) Diana

19. George is bothered by the cigarette smoke of his neighbor and exchanges seats with the person 4 places to his left. Which of the following must be true following the exchange?

(a) No one is seated between two persons of the opposite sex.

(b) one side of the table consists entirely of persons of the same sex.

(c) Either the host or hostess has changed seats

(a) A only (b)C only (c)A and B (d)B and C

Questions 20 - 22 are based on the following: The hotel Miramar has two wings, the east wing and the west wing. Some east wing rooms but not all, have an ocean view. All west wing rooms have a harbor view. The charge for all rooms is identical except for the following. There is an extra charge for all harbor view rooms on or above third floor. There is an extra charge for all ocean view rooms except those without balcony. Some harbor view rooms on the first two floors and some east wing rooms without ocean view have kitchen facilities for which there is an extra charge. Only the ocean view and harbor view rooms have balconies.

20. A guest may avoid an extra charge by requesting

(a) A west wing room on one of the first two floors.

(b) A west wing room on the fourth floor without balcony.

(c) An East wing room without balcony. (d)Any room without kitchen.

21. Which of the following must be true if all conditions are as stated?

(a) All rooms above the third floor involves extra charges.

(b) No room without an ocean or harbor view or kitchen facilities involves extra charge.

(c) There is no extra charge for an east wing room without ocean view.

(d) There is no extra charge for any room without Kitchen facilities.

22. which of the following must be false if all conditions are as stated?

(a) some ocean viewing rooms do not involve an extra charge

(b) all rooms with kitchen facilities involve an extra charge

(c) some west viewing rooms above the second floor do not involve an extra charge

Questions 23 to 26 are based on the following: Four cards of different suits are dealt one apiece to A, B, C and D.

B says: Mine is not a club. A says: Mine is not a spade.

D says: Mine is not a diamond. C says: Mine is not a spade.

A says: Mine is not a hear

23. A held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d) spade

24. B held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

25. C held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

26. D held

(a) heart (b) clubs (c) diamonds (d)spade

Questions 27 to 29 are based on the following: In a magical temple there are 3 doorways each leading to the interior of the temple. Every door way has an idol just inside. The magical powers of the temple doubles the flowers a devotee carries every time he/she passes under a doorway. Each devotee has to pass on straight through the doorway and cannot retrace his steps till he comes to the innermost idol.

27. Ram carries X flowers at each idol he places an identical number of flowers Y. He returns from the temple without a single flower. X was most probably

(a)2 (b)5 (c)6 (d)7

28. In the situation above Y was most probably

(a) 8(b)5(c)6(d)7

29. If Sita took 8 flowers to the temple and offered 4 flowers each to the first two idols then by the time she faces the third idol she has

(a)40 flowers (b)36 flowers (c)52 flowers (d) 56 flowers

aditiSECTION 4 - COMPUTATIONAL

30. 2 passengers have together 560 kgs of luggage and are charged for the excess above the weight allowed at 10$ and 26$. If all the luggage had belonged to one of them he would have to pay 46$. The amount of luggage each passenger is allowed without any charge is

(a)100 kg (b)150 kg (c)160 kg (d)Insufficient data

31. 6 pigs cost the same as 9 sheep. 27 sheep cost the same as 30 goats. 50 goats cost the same as 3 elephants. If two elephants cost $4800, then the cost of one pig in dollar is

(a)120 (b)240 (c)105 (d)250

32. A wholesaler allows a discount of 20 % on the list price to the retailer. The retailer sells at 5% below the list price. If the customer pays Rs.19 for an article what profit is made by the retailer on it?

(a)Rs.2 (b)Rs.3 (c)Rs.4 (d)Rs.4.5

33. A circular metal plate of even thickness has 12 holes of radius 1 cm drilled into it. As a result the plate lost 1/6th its original weight. The radius of the circular plate is

(a)16sqrt2 (b)8sqrt2 (c)32sqrt2 (d)sqrt723

34. 3 machines a,b,c can be used to produce a product. Machine a will take 60 hours to produce a million units. Machine b is twice as fast as machine a. Machine c takes the same amount of time as machine a and b taken together. How much time will be required to produce a million units if all the three machines are used simultaneously?

KPIT Placement Paper : Aditi aptitude and reasoning 03 April 2011

Aditi Sample placement paper,Aditi latest 2012-2013 Test paper,Aditi campus recruitment written test questions Aditi solved placement paper questions with answers,Aditi latest selection procedure,Aditi Aptitude and technical and technical hr interview proceeures,aditi off campus recruitment papers Aditi previous years questions,Aditi written test jhas 50 questions,1 hour,min CGPA 5.8, Question paper in two sets A & B 3 round of interview

ADITI PAPER ON 4th APRIL 2011,computational,logical reasoning,aptitude,anlytical questions

Aditi SECTION 1 (LOGICAL REASONING)

Questions :

1. Each floor of a 3 storeyed building is occupied and a total of 15 people live in the building. How many live on the first floor?

1) The no. of people living in the first floor is an odd number

2) The no. of people living on the first floor double the number living on the second floor

2. Program 1 can be implemented

1) Program 1 is tested and error free

2) The implementation site is ready

3. The sum of digits of a 5 digit no. is 10. The digit in the ten thousandth place is cube of that of units place. what is the number.

1) The digits in the thousandth, hundredth and tenth place are equal

2) The digit in the units and tenth place are not equal

4. If I deposit Rs.1000 in the bank now and withdraw the amount only at the end of the year how much will I get?

1) The rate of compound interest is 12% per year

2) The interest is deposited in the account at the end of every six months

5. Variable "X" is an address variable.

1) The value of variable "X" is "adbcf"

2) Program has a statement X =&Y

6. Is white color the best reflector of light?

1) The lower a color,s reflection index the better its power of reflection

2) White has a reflection index of 0.28

7. Does Mehta work in an advertising agency?

1) Mehta begins work at 9 am in the morning and works till 9 in the night

2) Mehta is a copywriter

8. Is it true that Maggi Noodles success was largely due to its ability to satisfy a latent consumer need?

More Questions:

1) Before the entry of Maggi Noodles, Others did not have access to a food item which was convenient to prepare and could be consumed between meals.

2) Maggi Noodles was an instant hit with ladies who had children in the range of 10 to 12 years

9. Sachin wrote Program 1

1) It is found in the directory

2) Sachin tested Program 1

10. Are all Argots also Knicks?

1) All Argots are Drones

2) All Drones are Knicks

11. Does classical music aid plant growth?

1) Music aids in the development of sugar in plants.

2) In an experiment conducted, its was observed that plants exposed to classical music grew by 5cm more than plants not exposed to classical music in the same period.

12. Are cheques the safest method of making a payment.

1) Cheques are more convenient than cash in making and resolving payments.

2) Payment by cheques eliminate the risk involved in handling cash.

13. Networking is working fine.

1) Computer A is able to talk to Computer B

2) Both Computer A & B are Pentium Machines.

14. Is it true that smiling is easier than frowning?

1) Smiling requires the movement of 14 facial muscles while frowning requires the movement of 24 facial muscles.

2) Moving every facial muscles requires the same amount of effort.

15. Is it true that the Carpenter lives on the first floor.?

1) the Barber lives two floors above the black smith who in turn stays one floor above the carpenter.

2) the blacksmith lives two floors above the weaver who lives one floor below the carpenter in a three storeyed building.

SECTION 3 - ANALYTICAL

Questions 16-19 are based on the following: At a formal dinner for 8, the host and the hostess are seated at opposite ends of a rectangular table, with 3 persons along each side. Each man must be seated next to at least to 1 woman, and vice versa. Alan is opposite to Diana, who is not the hostess. George has a woman on his right and is opposite to a woman. Helga is at the hostess,s right, next to Frank. One person is seated between Belinda and Carol.

16.The 8th person present, Eric must be

(a) the host

(b) seated to Diana,s right

(c) seated opposite to Carol

(a)a only (b)c only (c)b and c (d)a, b and c

17. If each person is placed directly opposite to his or her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married.

a) George and Helga

b) Belinda and Frank

(c) Carol and Frank

(d) George and Belinda

18. Which person is not seated next to a person of the same sex.?

(a)Alan (b) Belinda (c) Carol (d) Diana

19. George is bothered by the cigarette smoke of his neighbor and exchanges seats with the person 4 places to his left. Which of the following must be true following the exchange?

(a) No one is seated between two persons of the opposite sex.

(b) one side of the table consists entirely of persons of the same sex.

(c) Either the host or hostess has changed seats

(a) A only (b)C only (c)A and B (d)B and C

Questions 20 - 22 are based on the following: The hotel Miramar has two wings, the east wing and the west wing. Some east wing rooms but not all, have an ocean view. All west wing rooms have a harbor view. The charge for all rooms is identical except for the following. There is an extra charge for all harbor view rooms on or above third floor. There is an extra charge for all ocean view rooms except those without balcony. Some harbor view rooms on the first two floors and some east wing rooms without ocean view have kitchen facilities for which there is an extra charge. Only the ocean view and harbor view rooms have balconies.

20. A guest may avoid an extra charge by requesting

(a) A west wing room on one of the first two floors.

(b) A west wing room on the fourth floor without balcony.

(c) An East wing room without balcony. (d)Any room without kitchen.

21. Which of the following must be true if all conditions are as stated?

(a) All rooms above the third floor involves extra charges.

(b) No room without an ocean or harbor view or kitchen facilities involves extra charge.

(c) There is no extra charge for an east wing room without ocean view.

(d) There is no extra charge for any room without Kitchen facilities.

22. which of the following must be false if all conditions are as stated?

(a) some ocean viewing rooms do not involve an extra charge

(b) all rooms with kitchen facilities involve an extra charge

(c) some west viewing rooms above the second floor do not involve an extra charge

Questions 23 to 26 are based on the following: Four cards of different suits are dealt one apiece to A, B, C and D.

B says: Mine is not a club. A says: Mine is not a spade.

D says: Mine is not a diamond. C says: Mine is not a spade.

A says: Mine is not a hear

23. A held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d) spade

24. B held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

25. C held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

26. D held

(a) heart (b) clubs (c) diamonds (d)spade

Questions 27 to 29 are based on the following: In a magical temple there are 3 doorways each leading to the interior of the temple. Every door way has an idol just inside. The magical powers of the temple doubles the flowers a devotee carries every time he/she passes under a doorway. Each devotee has to pass on straight through the doorway and cannot retrace his steps till he comes to the innermost idol.

27. Ram carries X flowers at each idol he places an identical number of flowers Y. He returns from the temple without a single flower. X was most probably

(a)2 (b)5 (c)6 (d)7

28. In the situation above Y was most probably

(a) 8(b)5(c)6(d)7

29. If Sita took 8 flowers to the temple and offered 4 flowers each to the first two idols then by the time she faces the third idol she has

(a)40 flowers (b)36 flowers (c)52 flowers (d) 56 flowers

aditiSECTION 4 - COMPUTATIONAL

30. 2 passengers have together 560 kgs of luggage and are charged for the excess above the weight allowed at 10$ and 26$. If all the luggage had belonged to one of them he would have to pay 46$. The amount of luggage each passenger is allowed without any charge is

(a)100 kg (b)150 kg (c)160 kg (d)Insufficient data

31. 6 pigs cost the same as 9 sheep. 27 sheep cost the same as 30 goats. 50 goats cost the same as 3 elephants. If two elephants cost $4800, then the cost of one pig in dollar is

(a)120 (b)240 (c)105 (d)250

32. A wholesaler allows a discount of 20 % on the list price to the retailer. The retailer sells at 5% below the list price. If the customer pays Rs.19 for an article what profit is made by the retailer on it?

(a)Rs.2 (b)Rs.3 (c)Rs.4 (d)Rs.4.5

33. A circular metal plate of even thickness has 12 holes of radius 1 cm drilled into it. As a result the plate lost 1/6th its original weight. The radius of the circular plate is

(a)16sqrt2 (b)8sqrt2 (c)32sqrt2 (d)sqrt723

34. 3 machines a,b,c can be used to produce a product. Machine a will take 60 hours to produce a million units. Machine b is twice as fast as machine a. Machine c takes the same amount of time as machine a and b taken together. How much time will be required to produce a million units if all the three machines are used simultaneously?

ADITI PAPER ON 4th APRIL 2011,computational,logical reasoning,aptitude,anlytical questions

Aditi SECTION 1 (LOGICAL REASONING)

Questions :

1. Each floor of a 3 storeyed building is occupied and a total of 15 people live in the building. How many live on the first floor?

1) The no. of people living in the first floor is an odd number

2) The no. of people living on the first floor double the number living on the second floor

2. Program 1 can be implemented

1) Program 1 is tested and error free

2) The implementation site is ready

3. The sum of digits of a 5 digit no. is 10. The digit in the ten thousandth place is cube of that of units place. what is the number.

1) The digits in the thousandth, hundredth and tenth place are equal

2) The digit in the units and tenth place are not equal

4. If I deposit Rs.1000 in the bank now and withdraw the amount only at the end of the year how much will I get?

1) The rate of compound interest is 12% per year

2) The interest is deposited in the account at the end of every six months

5. Variable "X" is an address variable.

1) The value of variable "X" is "adbcf"

2) Program has a statement X =&Y

6. Is white color the best reflector of light?

1) The lower a color,s reflection index the better its power of reflection

2) White has a reflection index of 0.28

7. Does Mehta work in an advertising agency?

1) Mehta begins work at 9 am in the morning and works till 9 in the night

2) Mehta is a copywriter

8. Is it true that Maggi Noodles success was largely due to its ability to satisfy a latent consumer need?

More Questions:

1) Before the entry of Maggi Noodles, Others did not have access to a food item which was convenient to prepare and could be consumed between meals.

2) Maggi Noodles was an instant hit with ladies who had children in the range of 10 to 12 years

9. Sachin wrote Program 1

1) It is found in the directory

2) Sachin tested Program 1

10. Are all Argots also Knicks?

1) All Argots are Drones

2) All Drones are Knicks

11. Does classical music aid plant growth?

1) Music aids in the development of sugar in plants.

2) In an experiment conducted, its was observed that plants exposed to classical music grew by 5cm more than plants not exposed to classical music in the same period.

12. Are cheques the safest method of making a payment.

1) Cheques are more convenient than cash in making and resolving payments.

2) Payment by cheques eliminate the risk involved in handling cash.

13. Networking is working fine.

1) Computer A is able to talk to Computer B

2) Both Computer A & B are Pentium Machines.

14. Is it true that smiling is easier than frowning?

1) Smiling requires the movement of 14 facial muscles while frowning requires the movement of 24 facial muscles.

2) Moving every facial muscles requires the same amount of effort.

15. Is it true that the Carpenter lives on the first floor.?

1) the Barber lives two floors above the black smith who in turn stays one floor above the carpenter.

2) the blacksmith lives two floors above the weaver who lives one floor below the carpenter in a three storeyed building.

SECTION 3 - ANALYTICAL

Questions 16-19 are based on the following: At a formal dinner for 8, the host and the hostess are seated at opposite ends of a rectangular table, with 3 persons along each side. Each man must be seated next to at least to 1 woman, and vice versa. Alan is opposite to Diana, who is not the hostess. George has a woman on his right and is opposite to a woman. Helga is at the hostess,s right, next to Frank. One person is seated between Belinda and Carol.

16.The 8th person present, Eric must be

(a) the host

(b) seated to Diana,s right

(c) seated opposite to Carol

(a)a only (b)c only (c)b and c (d)a, b and c

17. If each person is placed directly opposite to his or her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married.

a) George and Helga

b) Belinda and Frank

(c) Carol and Frank

(d) George and Belinda

18. Which person is not seated next to a person of the same sex.?

(a)Alan (b) Belinda (c) Carol (d) Diana

19. George is bothered by the cigarette smoke of his neighbor and exchanges seats with the person 4 places to his left. Which of the following must be true following the exchange?

(a) No one is seated between two persons of the opposite sex.

(b) one side of the table consists entirely of persons of the same sex.

(c) Either the host or hostess has changed seats

(a) A only (b)C only (c)A and B (d)B and C

Questions 20 - 22 are based on the following: The hotel Miramar has two wings, the east wing and the west wing. Some east wing rooms but not all, have an ocean view. All west wing rooms have a harbor view. The charge for all rooms is identical except for the following. There is an extra charge for all harbor view rooms on or above third floor. There is an extra charge for all ocean view rooms except those without balcony. Some harbor view rooms on the first two floors and some east wing rooms without ocean view have kitchen facilities for which there is an extra charge. Only the ocean view and harbor view rooms have balconies.

20. A guest may avoid an extra charge by requesting

(a) A west wing room on one of the first two floors.

(b) A west wing room on the fourth floor without balcony.

(c) An East wing room without balcony. (d)Any room without kitchen.

21. Which of the following must be true if all conditions are as stated?

(a) All rooms above the third floor involves extra charges.

(b) No room without an ocean or harbor view or kitchen facilities involves extra charge.

(c) There is no extra charge for an east wing room without ocean view.

(d) There is no extra charge for any room without Kitchen facilities.

22. which of the following must be false if all conditions are as stated?

(a) some ocean viewing rooms do not involve an extra charge

(b) all rooms with kitchen facilities involve an extra charge

(c) some west viewing rooms above the second floor do not involve an extra charge

Questions 23 to 26 are based on the following: Four cards of different suits are dealt one apiece to A, B, C and D.

B says: Mine is not a club. A says: Mine is not a spade.

D says: Mine is not a diamond. C says: Mine is not a spade.

A says: Mine is not a hear

23. A held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d) spade

24. B held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

25. C held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

26. D held

(a) heart (b) clubs (c) diamonds (d)spade

Questions 27 to 29 are based on the following: In a magical temple there are 3 doorways each leading to the interior of the temple. Every door way has an idol just inside. The magical powers of the temple doubles the flowers a devotee carries every time he/she passes under a doorway. Each devotee has to pass on straight through the doorway and cannot retrace his steps till he comes to the innermost idol.

27. Ram carries X flowers at each idol he places an identical number of flowers Y. He returns from the temple without a single flower. X was most probably

(a)2 (b)5 (c)6 (d)7

28. In the situation above Y was most probably

(a) 8(b)5(c)6(d)7

29. If Sita took 8 flowers to the temple and offered 4 flowers each to the first two idols then by the time she faces the third idol she has

(a)40 flowers (b)36 flowers (c)52 flowers (d) 56 flowers

aditiSECTION 4 - COMPUTATIONAL

30. 2 passengers have together 560 kgs of luggage and are charged for the excess above the weight allowed at 10$ and 26$. If all the luggage had belonged to one of them he would have to pay 46$. The amount of luggage each passenger is allowed without any charge is

(a)100 kg (b)150 kg (c)160 kg (d)Insufficient data

31. 6 pigs cost the same as 9 sheep. 27 sheep cost the same as 30 goats. 50 goats cost the same as 3 elephants. If two elephants cost $4800, then the cost of one pig in dollar is

(a)120 (b)240 (c)105 (d)250

32. A wholesaler allows a discount of 20 % on the list price to the retailer. The retailer sells at 5% below the list price. If the customer pays Rs.19 for an article what profit is made by the retailer on it?

(a)Rs.2 (b)Rs.3 (c)Rs.4 (d)Rs.4.5

33. A circular metal plate of even thickness has 12 holes of radius 1 cm drilled into it. As a result the plate lost 1/6th its original weight. The radius of the circular plate is

(a)16sqrt2 (b)8sqrt2 (c)32sqrt2 (d)sqrt723

34. 3 machines a,b,c can be used to produce a product. Machine a will take 60 hours to produce a million units. Machine b is twice as fast as machine a. Machine c takes the same amount of time as machine a and b taken together. How much time will be required to produce a million units if all the three machines are used simultaneously?

KPIT Placement Paper : Aditi aptitude and reasoning 03 April 2011

Aditi Sample placement paper,Aditi latest 2012-2013 Test paper,Aditi campus recruitment written test questions Aditi solved placement paper questions with answers,Aditi latest selection procedure,Aditi Aptitude and technical and technical hr interview proceeures,aditi off campus recruitment papers Aditi previous years questions,Aditi written test jhas 50 questions,1 hour,min CGPA 5.8, Question paper in two sets A & B 3 round of interview

ADITI PAPER ON 4th APRIL 2011,computational,logical reasoning,aptitude,anlytical questions

Aditi SECTION 1 (LOGICAL REASONING)

Questions :

1. Each floor of a 3 storeyed building is occupied and a total of 15 people live in the building. How many live on the first floor?

1) The no. of people living in the first floor is an odd number

2) The no. of people living on the first floor double the number living on the second floor

2. Program 1 can be implemented

1) Program 1 is tested and error free

2) The implementation site is ready

3. The sum of digits of a 5 digit no. is 10. The digit in the ten thousandth place is cube of that of units place. what is the number.

1) The digits in the thousandth, hundredth and tenth place are equal

2) The digit in the units and tenth place are not equal

4. If I deposit Rs.1000 in the bank now and withdraw the amount only at the end of the year how much will I get?

1) The rate of compound interest is 12% per year

2) The interest is deposited in the account at the end of every six months

5. Variable "X" is an address variable.

1) The value of variable "X" is "adbcf"

2) Program has a statement X =&Y

6. Is white color the best reflector of light?

1) The lower a color,s reflection index the better its power of reflection

2) White has a reflection index of 0.28

7. Does Mehta work in an advertising agency?

1) Mehta begins work at 9 am in the morning and works till 9 in the night

2) Mehta is a copywriter

8. Is it true that Maggi Noodles success was largely due to its ability to satisfy a latent consumer need?

More Questions:

1) Before the entry of Maggi Noodles, Others did not have access to a food item which was convenient to prepare and could be consumed between meals.

2) Maggi Noodles was an instant hit with ladies who had children in the range of 10 to 12 years

9. Sachin wrote Program 1

1) It is found in the directory

2) Sachin tested Program 1

10. Are all Argots also Knicks?

1) All Argots are Drones

2) All Drones are Knicks

11. Does classical music aid plant growth?

1) Music aids in the development of sugar in plants.

2) In an experiment conducted, its was observed that plants exposed to classical music grew by 5cm more than plants not exposed to classical music in the same period.

12. Are cheques the safest method of making a payment.

1) Cheques are more convenient than cash in making and resolving payments.

2) Payment by cheques eliminate the risk involved in handling cash.

13. Networking is working fine.

1) Computer A is able to talk to Computer B

2) Both Computer A & B are Pentium Machines.

14. Is it true that smiling is easier than frowning?

1) Smiling requires the movement of 14 facial muscles while frowning requires the movement of 24 facial muscles.

2) Moving every facial muscles requires the same amount of effort.

15. Is it true that the Carpenter lives on the first floor.?

1) the Barber lives two floors above the black smith who in turn stays one floor above the carpenter.

2) the blacksmith lives two floors above the weaver who lives one floor below the carpenter in a three storeyed building.

SECTION 3 - ANALYTICAL

Questions 16-19 are based on the following: At a formal dinner for 8, the host and the hostess are seated at opposite ends of a rectangular table, with 3 persons along each side. Each man must be seated next to at least to 1 woman, and vice versa. Alan is opposite to Diana, who is not the hostess. George has a woman on his right and is opposite to a woman. Helga is at the hostess,s right, next to Frank. One person is seated between Belinda and Carol.

16.The 8th person present, Eric must be

(a) the host

(b) seated to Diana,s right

(c) seated opposite to Carol

(a)a only (b)c only (c)b and c (d)a, b and c

17. If each person is placed directly opposite to his or her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married.

a) George and Helga

b) Belinda and Frank

(c) Carol and Frank

(d) George and Belinda

18. Which person is not seated next to a person of the same sex.?

(a)Alan (b) Belinda (c) Carol (d) Diana

19. George is bothered by the cigarette smoke of his neighbor and exchanges seats with the person 4 places to his left. Which of the following must be true following the exchange?

(a) No one is seated between two persons of the opposite sex.

(b) one side of the table consists entirely of persons of the same sex.

(c) Either the host or hostess has changed seats

(a) A only (b)C only (c)A and B (d)B and C

Questions 20 - 22 are based on the following: The hotel Miramar has two wings, the east wing and the west wing. Some east wing rooms but not all, have an ocean view. All west wing rooms have a harbor view. The charge for all rooms is identical except for the following. There is an extra charge for all harbor view rooms on or above third floor. There is an extra charge for all ocean view rooms except those without balcony. Some harbor view rooms on the first two floors and some east wing rooms without ocean view have kitchen facilities for which there is an extra charge. Only the ocean view and harbor view rooms have balconies.

20. A guest may avoid an extra charge by requesting

(a) A west wing room on one of the first two floors.

(b) A west wing room on the fourth floor without balcony.

(c) An East wing room without balcony. (d)Any room without kitchen.

21. Which of the following must be true if all conditions are as stated?

(a) All rooms above the third floor involves extra charges.

(b) No room without an ocean or harbor view or kitchen facilities involves extra charge.

(c) There is no extra charge for an east wing room without ocean view.

(d) There is no extra charge for any room without Kitchen facilities.

22. which of the following must be false if all conditions are as stated?

(a) some ocean viewing rooms do not involve an extra charge

(b) all rooms with kitchen facilities involve an extra charge

(c) some west viewing rooms above the second floor do not involve an extra charge

Questions 23 to 26 are based on the following: Four cards of different suits are dealt one apiece to A, B, C and D.

B says: Mine is not a club. A says: Mine is not a spade.

D says: Mine is not a diamond. C says: Mine is not a spade.

A says: Mine is not a hear

23. A held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d) spade

24. B held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

25. C held

(a)heart (b)clubs (c)diamonds (d)spade

26. D held

(a) heart (b) clubs (c) diamonds (d)spade

Questions 27 to 29 are based on the following: In a magical temple there are 3 doorways each leading to the interior of the temple. Every door way has an idol just inside. The magical powers of the temple doubles the flowers a devotee carries every time he/she passes under a doorway. Each devotee has to pass on straight through the doorway and cannot retrace his steps till he comes to the innermost idol.

27. Ram carries X flowers at each idol he places an identical number of flowers Y. He returns from the temple without a single flower. X was most probably

(a)2 (b)5 (c)6 (d)7

28. In the situation above Y was most probably

(a) 8(b)5(c)6(d)7

29. If Sita took 8 flowers to the temple and offered 4 flowers each to the first two idols then by the time she faces the third idol she has

(a)40 flowers (b)36 flowers (c)52 flowers (d) 56 flowers

aditiSECTION 4 - COMPUTATIONAL

30. 2 passengers have together 560 kgs of luggage and are charged for the excess above the weight allowed at 10$ and 26$. If all the luggage had belonged to one of them he would have to pay 46$. The amount of luggage each passenger is allowed without any charge is

(a)100 kg (b)150 kg (c)160 kg (d)Insufficient data

31. 6 pigs cost the same as 9 sheep. 27 sheep cost the same as 30 goats. 50 goats cost the same as 3 elephants. If two elephants cost $4800, then the cost of one pig in dollar is

(a)120 (b)240 (c)105 (d)250

32. A wholesaler allows a discount of 20 % on the list price to the retailer. The retailer sells at 5% below the list price. If the customer pays Rs.19 for an article what profit is made by the retailer on it?

(a)Rs.2 (b)Rs.3 (c)Rs.4 (d)Rs.4.5

33. A circular metal plate of even thickness has 12 holes of radius 1 cm drilled into it. As a result the plate lost 1/6th its original weight. The radius of the circular plate is

(a)16sqrt2 (b)8sqrt2 (c)32sqrt2 (d)sqrt723

34. 3 machines a,b,c can be used to produce a product. Machine a will take 60 hours to produce a million units. Machine b is twice as fast as machine a. Machine c takes the same amount of time as machine a and b taken together. How much time will be required to produce a million units if all the three machines are used simultaneously?

KPIT Placement Paper : 3i Infotech Aptitude General 24 April 2012

Paper pattern

Time duration: 90 mins

-ve marking : .25

3 sections..Verbal, Logic,Arithmetic( 50 qn each. Total 150 qns.)

verbal:

one unseen passege of 400 words government loan policy n 10 related ques.and

3 synonyms (range,retreats,unrelenting)

2 antonyms( extreme,continous) these words were marked bold in the pessage.

10 ques were on filling pessage with words given.para was on software development in India.(requires strong vocabulary.)

10 on error finding.

5 were to arrange sentences in proper order.

10 ques to fill blanks with proper grammer form of words.

Airthematic:

15 on DI (5 on tabular table,5 on bar graph, 5 on pie chart)

2 ques on simple nd compound intrest.

7 ques on data sufficiency (easy one)

5 ques were given in which 2 quadratic equations were given in each question n we have to compare value of x nd y.

2 ques to find odd one from options given.(mera ek galat ho gaya)

7 ques to find wrong term in series.

4 ques to find value of (?) in equation.

5 ques on permutation nd combination.

Logic:

10 ques on puzzle ( two puzzles were given)

4 ques on coding-decoding

5 ques like

p @ I means p>I

e%j means e

5 ques like

a&b%c means add a with product of b and c etc

find value of(?) in equations

5 ques on syllogism

all cats r dog

all dogs r bags etc n choose the correct conclusions.

5 ques on series of mixed characters,numerals n alphabets anser ques checking arrangement.

Dats all dat I remember..paper was really tough..try bank PO papers n CAT pattern was followed.BYE……one more thing B4 going to give paper check how to fill the omr answer sheet from documents given by 3i on net..many candidates were creating panic there..BYE..

,klp[p=[

Time duration: 90 mins

-ve marking : .25

3 sections..Verbal, Logic,Arithmetic( 50 qn each. Total 150 qns.)

verbal:

one unseen passege of 400 words government loan policy n 10 related ques.and

3 synonyms (range,retreats,unrelenting)

2 antonyms( extreme,continous) these words were marked bold in the pessage.

10 ques were on filling pessage with words given.para was on software development in India.(requires strong vocabulary.)

10 on error finding.

5 were to arrange sentences in proper order.

10 ques to fill blanks with proper grammer form of words.

Airthematic:

15 on DI (5 on tabular table,5 on bar graph, 5 on pie chart)

2 ques on simple nd compound intrest.

7 ques on data sufficiency (easy one)

5 ques were given in which 2 quadratic equations were given in each question n we have to compare value of x nd y.

2 ques to find odd one from options given.(mera ek galat ho gaya)

7 ques to find wrong term in series.

4 ques to find value of (?) in equation.

5 ques on permutation nd combination.

Logic:

10 ques on puzzle ( two puzzles were given)

4 ques on coding-decoding

5 ques like

p @ I means p>I

e%j means e

5 ques like

a&b%c means add a with product of b and c etc

find value of(?) in equations

5 ques on syllogism

all cats r dog

all dogs r bags etc n choose the correct conclusions.

5 ques on series of mixed characters,numerals n alphabets anser ques checking arrangement.

Dats all dat I remember..paper was really tough..try bank PO papers n CAT pattern was followed.BYE……one more thing B4 going to give paper check how to fill the omr answer sheet from documents given by 3i on net..many candidates were creating panic there..BYE..

,klp[p=[

KPIT Placement Paper : Ramco Aptitude and Technical 31 December 2011

RAMCO PAPER - 2012

Ramco Sample Paper #1

Directions: Each of the following question has a question and two statements labelled as (i) and (ii). Use the data/information given in (i) and (ii) to decide whether the data are sufficient to answer the question record your answer as

A) If you can get the answer from (1)alone but not from (2)

B) If you can get the answer from (2)alone but not from (1)

C) If can get the answer from (1)and (2)together ,although neither statement by itself suffice

D) If statement (1)alone suffices and statement (2) alone also suffice.

E) If can,t get the answer from statements (1) and (2) together and you need more data.

Q1)What will be the population of city X in 1991?

1) Population of the city has 55% annual growth rate

2) in 1991,the population of city X was 8 million

Ans:C

Q2) Was it Rani,s birthday yesterday?

1)Lata spends Rs.100 on Rani,s birthday

2)Lata spent Rs.100 yesterday

Ans: E

Q3)Is 3*5 or is 4*6 greater ?

1)a*b =b*a

2)a*b is the remainder of ab%(a+b)

Ans:B

Q4)Will the graph X-Y pass through the origin?

1) x proportional to the Y

2)increment in y per units rise of x is fixed.

Ans:E

Q5) What was the value of the machine 2 years ago?

1) the deprecition of the value of the machine per year is 10%

2)present value of the machine is rs 8000/

Ans:C

Q6) What will be the area of a square that can be inscribed in a circle?

1) Radius of the circle is T

2) Length of a diagonal of the square is 2r

Ans:D

Q7) Can it be concluded that the port made more profit in 1988 than in 1987

1) 1987

Total tonnage handled by the port 10 million tonnes Expenditure made by the port to handle one tonne of cargo Rs.20/-

2) 1988

Total tonnage handled by the port 12.5 million tonnes Expenditure made by the port to handle one tonne of cargo Rs 25/-

Ans: E

Q8) There are two figures viz., a circle and a square. Which having greater area?

1) Perimeter of the circle is the same as the perimeter of the square.

2) Eleven times the radius is equal to seven times the length of one side of the square.

Ans: D

Q9) A candidate who was found to be under weightin medical test had been selected provisionally subject to his attainment of 60Kg weight within one year. What should be the percentage increase of his weightso that selection is confirmed after one year.

1) Weight (Kg)=16+8 Height (ft) is standard equation for the Indian population. The candidates height is 5.5

2) His present weight is 55Kg.

Ans: D

Q10) Is angle U=90

1) sin**2(U)+cos**2(U)=1

2) sin**2(U)-+cos**2(U)=1

Ans: E

Q11) What will be the average age of workers of an Institution after two years?

1) Present average age is 35 years

2) There are total 20 workers in the Institution

Ans: A

Q12) Can it be concluded that firestry is getting increasing importance in India? ( Disregarding the change in money value )

1)

Name of the plan Expenditure on Forest (Crores of rupees)

First five year plan

Second five year plan

10

19

2)

Name of the plan Expenditure on Forest (Crores of rupees)

First five year plan

Second five year plan 46

92.5

Ans: E

Q13) Is AB>AM ( A Triangle is given )

1) AB2) M is any point other than B and C on BC

Ans: E

Q14) Is X^2+Y^21) 02) 0

Ans: C

Q15) Can it be concluded that angle ABO = angle ODC

1) ABCD is a Parallelogram and O is the point of intersection of the diagonals.

2) Angle DOC =75deg. and angle DAO =35deg.

Ans: A

Q16) What is the value of x+y?

1) 2y=x+6

2) 5x=10y-30

Ans: E

Q17) How many students are there in the class?

1) 30 students play foot ball and 40 play cricket .

2)Each student plays either foot ball or cricket or both.

Ans: E

Q18) What is the value of a:b?

1) a=x+10%ofx

2) b=a+10%ofa

Ans: B

Q19) What is the maximum value of the expression 5+8x-8x^2?

1) x is real

2) x is not positive

Ans: C

Q20) What will be the value of the greatest angle of the triangle ABC?

1) Angles of the triangle are in the ration 2:5:3

2) The side opposite to the greatest angle is the longest side.

Ans: A

Q21) What is the range of values of x?

1)( x-2 ) / ( 2x + 5 ) < 1/3

2)2x /3 + 17/3 > 3x - 20

Ans: D

Q22) Of the two which one is the greater -- -3/x , -3/y?

1) x,y>0

2) x

Ans: C

Q23) What percentage of the candidates passed both in science and mathematics?

1) 52 percent of the candidates failed in science

2) 42% of the candidates failed in mathematics

Ans: C

Q24) How much pure H2SO4 (Hydro Sulphuric Acid) should be added to bring down the percentage of impuritity to 5%?

1). 50 liters of pure H2SO4 was diluted

2). dilution was to the extent of 20%

Ans:C

Q25) What is the cost of building when archtects feeses was 70,000

1. Architect gets 10% for the first Rs. 50000 of the cost of building

2. Architect gets 3% on the cost of the building over 50000

Ans:C

Q26) What is the value of BC?( here one triangle figure is there )

1). AP=4

2). PQ=5

Ans: E

Q27) What is the area of the shaded portion (assume AB, CD are arcs of two circles with centre at 0.)Here one arc figure is there

1). CA=20m

2). CB=5m

Ans:C

Q28) What is the area of the greatest circle that can be out from rectangular paper

1). length of the paper is 30cm

2). Width of the paper is 21cm

Ans:B

Q29) Y is what percentage of X?

1). 0.3x=Y

2). 3x-10y=0

Ans:D

Q30) What is the area of the trapezium abcd where ab is 5cm

1. BC=7CM

2. AB+CD= 16CM

Directions :- Each sentence below has one or two blanks.Choose the word from the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q31) The air was bitter cold, the temperature well below the freezing point , yet they found themselves ------ freely as they clambered up the steep northern slope

Ans: disporting

Q32) We were taken when we heard of his defection , never having suspected that he was anything but loyal. So capable had been his ---- or and devotion to cease

Ans: presentiment

Q33) War and peace are mutually ------- states of being and war to preserve peace is not a paradox . It is a -----

Ans: incompatible -- contradiction

Q34) Although the injury appeared ------, the examination by the ophthomologist revealed that he would need immediate surgery to save his sight.

Ans: superficial

Q35 to Q40 - On similar pattern as above.

Antonyms

Q41. corroborative ---- refutable

Q42. obnoxious ---- harmless

Q43. sanction ---- hinder

Q44. empirical ---- experimental

Q45. aborigine ---- emigrant

Directions for questions 56- 60 . Questions 56 -60 are based on the following information:

A port has four berths W,V,X,Y. Of these two are general cargo berth, one is a fertiliser berth and one is for liquid cargo, When vessel A arrived it was berthed at berth V but vessel B which along with A had to wait prior to berthing as vessel C was working in berth Y and vessel D was working in berth W .Vessel E came to unload fertiliser and did not have to wait. All are specilised berths i.e. general cargo vessel has to work only in a general cargo berth. So is true for fertiliser vessel and liquid cargo vessel.

Q56. The vessel E should be alotted to the berth.

Ans: X

Q57. Which of the following berth can accept a vessel carrying liquid cargo--W, V, X, Y

Ans: V

Q58. Which of the following is not a general cargo vessel--A ,B, C, D, E

Ans:A

Q59. Total number of general cargo vessels mentioned in the above description is

Ans:3

Q60. Whcih of the following allotments is possible

Ans: B to W

Ramco Sample Paper #1

Directions: Each of the following question has a question and two statements labelled as (i) and (ii). Use the data/information given in (i) and (ii) to decide whether the data are sufficient to answer the question record your answer as

A) If you can get the answer from (1)alone but not from (2)

B) If you can get the answer from (2)alone but not from (1)

C) If can get the answer from (1)and (2)together ,although neither statement by itself suffice

D) If statement (1)alone suffices and statement (2) alone also suffice.

E) If can,t get the answer from statements (1) and (2) together and you need more data.

Q1)What will be the population of city X in 1991?

1) Population of the city has 55% annual growth rate

2) in 1991,the population of city X was 8 million

Ans:C

Q2) Was it Rani,s birthday yesterday?

1)Lata spends Rs.100 on Rani,s birthday

2)Lata spent Rs.100 yesterday

Ans: E

Q3)Is 3*5 or is 4*6 greater ?

1)a*b =b*a

2)a*b is the remainder of ab%(a+b)

Ans:B

Q4)Will the graph X-Y pass through the origin?

1) x proportional to the Y

2)increment in y per units rise of x is fixed.

Ans:E

Q5) What was the value of the machine 2 years ago?

1) the deprecition of the value of the machine per year is 10%

2)present value of the machine is rs 8000/

Ans:C

Q6) What will be the area of a square that can be inscribed in a circle?

1) Radius of the circle is T

2) Length of a diagonal of the square is 2r

Ans:D

Q7) Can it be concluded that the port made more profit in 1988 than in 1987

1) 1987

Total tonnage handled by the port 10 million tonnes Expenditure made by the port to handle one tonne of cargo Rs.20/-

2) 1988

Total tonnage handled by the port 12.5 million tonnes Expenditure made by the port to handle one tonne of cargo Rs 25/-

Ans: E

Q8) There are two figures viz., a circle and a square. Which having greater area?

1) Perimeter of the circle is the same as the perimeter of the square.

2) Eleven times the radius is equal to seven times the length of one side of the square.

Ans: D

Q9) A candidate who was found to be under weightin medical test had been selected provisionally subject to his attainment of 60Kg weight within one year. What should be the percentage increase of his weightso that selection is confirmed after one year.

1) Weight (Kg)=16+8 Height (ft) is standard equation for the Indian population. The candidates height is 5.5

2) His present weight is 55Kg.

Ans: D

Q10) Is angle U=90

1) sin**2(U)+cos**2(U)=1

2) sin**2(U)-+cos**2(U)=1

Ans: E

Q11) What will be the average age of workers of an Institution after two years?

1) Present average age is 35 years

2) There are total 20 workers in the Institution

Ans: A

Q12) Can it be concluded that firestry is getting increasing importance in India? ( Disregarding the change in money value )

1)

Name of the plan Expenditure on Forest (Crores of rupees)

First five year plan

Second five year plan

10

19

2)

Name of the plan Expenditure on Forest (Crores of rupees)

First five year plan

Second five year plan 46

92.5

Ans: E

Q13) Is AB>AM ( A Triangle is given )

1) AB2) M is any point other than B and C on BC

Ans: E

Q14) Is X^2+Y^21) 02) 0

Ans: C

Q15) Can it be concluded that angle ABO = angle ODC

1) ABCD is a Parallelogram and O is the point of intersection of the diagonals.

2) Angle DOC =75deg. and angle DAO =35deg.

Ans: A

Q16) What is the value of x+y?

1) 2y=x+6

2) 5x=10y-30

Ans: E

Q17) How many students are there in the class?

1) 30 students play foot ball and 40 play cricket .

2)Each student plays either foot ball or cricket or both.

Ans: E

Q18) What is the value of a:b?

1) a=x+10%ofx

2) b=a+10%ofa

Ans: B

Q19) What is the maximum value of the expression 5+8x-8x^2?

1) x is real

2) x is not positive

Ans: C

Q20) What will be the value of the greatest angle of the triangle ABC?

1) Angles of the triangle are in the ration 2:5:3

2) The side opposite to the greatest angle is the longest side.

Ans: A

Q21) What is the range of values of x?

1)( x-2 ) / ( 2x + 5 ) < 1/3

2)2x /3 + 17/3 > 3x - 20

Ans: D

Q22) Of the two which one is the greater -- -3/x , -3/y?

1) x,y>0

2) x

Ans: C

Q23) What percentage of the candidates passed both in science and mathematics?

1) 52 percent of the candidates failed in science

2) 42% of the candidates failed in mathematics

Ans: C

Q24) How much pure H2SO4 (Hydro Sulphuric Acid) should be added to bring down the percentage of impuritity to 5%?

1). 50 liters of pure H2SO4 was diluted

2). dilution was to the extent of 20%

Ans:C

Q25) What is the cost of building when archtects feeses was 70,000

1. Architect gets 10% for the first Rs. 50000 of the cost of building

2. Architect gets 3% on the cost of the building over 50000

Ans:C

Q26) What is the value of BC?( here one triangle figure is there )

1). AP=4

2). PQ=5

Ans: E

Q27) What is the area of the shaded portion (assume AB, CD are arcs of two circles with centre at 0.)Here one arc figure is there

1). CA=20m

2). CB=5m

Ans:C

Q28) What is the area of the greatest circle that can be out from rectangular paper

1). length of the paper is 30cm

2). Width of the paper is 21cm

Ans:B

Q29) Y is what percentage of X?

1). 0.3x=Y

2). 3x-10y=0

Ans:D

Q30) What is the area of the trapezium abcd where ab is 5cm

1. BC=7CM

2. AB+CD= 16CM

Directions :- Each sentence below has one or two blanks.Choose the word from the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q31) The air was bitter cold, the temperature well below the freezing point , yet they found themselves ------ freely as they clambered up the steep northern slope

Ans: disporting

Q32) We were taken when we heard of his defection , never having suspected that he was anything but loyal. So capable had been his ---- or and devotion to cease

Ans: presentiment

Q33) War and peace are mutually ------- states of being and war to preserve peace is not a paradox . It is a -----

Ans: incompatible -- contradiction

Q34) Although the injury appeared ------, the examination by the ophthomologist revealed that he would need immediate surgery to save his sight.

Ans: superficial

Q35 to Q40 - On similar pattern as above.

Antonyms

Q41. corroborative ---- refutable

Q42. obnoxious ---- harmless

Q43. sanction ---- hinder

Q44. empirical ---- experimental

Q45. aborigine ---- emigrant

Directions for questions 56- 60 . Questions 56 -60 are based on the following information:

A port has four berths W,V,X,Y. Of these two are general cargo berth, one is a fertiliser berth and one is for liquid cargo, When vessel A arrived it was berthed at berth V but vessel B which along with A had to wait prior to berthing as vessel C was working in berth Y and vessel D was working in berth W .Vessel E came to unload fertiliser and did not have to wait. All are specilised berths i.e. general cargo vessel has to work only in a general cargo berth. So is true for fertiliser vessel and liquid cargo vessel.

Q56. The vessel E should be alotted to the berth.

Ans: X

Q57. Which of the following berth can accept a vessel carrying liquid cargo--W, V, X, Y

Ans: V

Q58. Which of the following is not a general cargo vessel--A ,B, C, D, E

Ans:A

Q59. Total number of general cargo vessels mentioned in the above description is

Ans:3

Q60. Whcih of the following allotments is possible

Ans: B to W