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IOCL Placement Paper : IOCL Placement Paper Electrical 2012

IOCL PART - I TYPICAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1 The two windings of a transformer is
(A) conductively linked.
(B) inductively linked.
(C) not linked at all.
(D) electrically linked.
Ans : B

Q.2 A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its field current is switched off. The motor will
(A) come to stop.
(B) continue to run at synchronous speed.
(C) continue to run at a speed slightly more than the synchronous speed.
(D) continue to run at a speed slightly less than the synchronous speed.
Ans: B

Q.3 The d.c. series motor should always be started with load because
(A) at no load, it will rotate at dangerously high speed.
(B) it will fail to start.
(C) it will not develop high starting torque.
(D) all are true.
Ans: A

Q.4 The frequency of the rotor current in a 3 phase 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor at full load speed is about
(A) 50 Hz.
(B) 20 Hz.
(C) 2 Hz.
(D) Zero.
Ans: C

Q.5 In a stepper motor the angular displacement
(A) can be precisely controlled.
(B) it cannot be readily interfaced with micro computer based controller.
(C) the angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled.
(D) it cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machines.
Ans: A

Q.6 The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is
(A) low at light load only.
(B) low at heavy load only.
(C) low at light and heavy load both.
(D) low at rated load only.
Ans: A

Q.7 The generation voltage is usually
(A) between 11 KV and 33 KV.
(B) between 132 KV and 400 KV.
(C) between 400 KV and 700 KV.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: A

Q.8 When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(A) damping torque.
(B) eddy current torque.
(C) torque aiding the developed torque.
(D) no torque.
Ans: D

Q.9 If a transformer primary is energised from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage will be
(A) A square wave.
(B) A sine wave.
(C) A triangular wave.
(D) A pulse wave.
Ans: A

Q.10 In a d.c. series motor the electromagnetic torque developed is proportional to
(A)1a

(B)12a-Answer

(C)1/1a

(D)1/12a
Ans: B
Q.11 In a 3 phase induction motor running at slip s the mechanical power developed in terms of air gap power Pg is
(A)(s-1)Pg

(B)Pg/1-S

(C)1-SPg-Answer

(D)S.Pg.


In a 3 phase induction motor the maximum torque
(A) is proportional to rotor resistance
(B) does not depend on
(C) is proportional to
(D) is proportional to

Q.13In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is
(A) stationary w.r.t. armature.
(B) rotating w.r.t. field.
(C) stationary w.r.t. field.
(D) rotating w.r.t. brushes.
Ans: C

Q.14In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at
(A) unity p.f.
(B) leading p.f.
(C) lagging p.f.
(D) zero p.f. leading.
Ans: B

Q.15 The maximum power in cylindrical and salient pole machines is obtained respectively at load angles of

Q.16 The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60 Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be
(A) 3.6 V.
(B) 2.5 V.
(C) 3.0 V.
(D) 6.0 V.
Ans: C

Q.17 The emf induced in the primary of a transformer
(A) is in phase with the flux.
(B) lags behind the flux by 90 degree.
(C) leads the flux by 90 degree.
(D) is in phase opposition to that of flux.
Ans: C

Q.18 The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady state operation is zero for a
(A) dc machine.
(B) 3 phase induction machine.
(C) synchronous machine.
(D) single phase induction machine.
Ans: all options are correct

Q.19 The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through
(A) slip rings.
(B) commutator segments.
(C) solid connections.
(D) carbon brushes.
Ans: C

Q.20 A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is the
(A) squirrel cage induction motor.
(B) wound rotor induction motor.
(C) synchronous motor.
(D) DC shunt motor.
Ans: C


Q.21 A hysteresis motor
(A) is not a self-starting motor.
(B) is a constant speed motor.
(C) needs dc excitation.
(D) can not be run in reverse speed.
Ans: B

Q.22
The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is
(A) a dc series motor.
(B) a dc shunt motor.
(C) an ac two-phase induction motor.
(D) an ac series motor.
Ans: B

Q.23 The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the
(A) operating voltage.
(B) power factor.
(C) current to be carried.
(D) type of insulation used.
Ans: C

Q.24 Out of the following methods of heating the one which is independent of supply frequency is
(A) electric arc heating
(B) induction heating
(C) electric resistance heating
(D) dielectric heating
Ans: C
Q.25

A two-winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full-load and unity power-factor. At full-load and 0.80 power-factor lagging load the voltage regulation will be
(A) 4.5%.
(B) less than 4.5%.
(C) more than 4.5%.
(D) 4.5% or more than 4.5%.
Ans: C

IOCL Placement Paper : IOCL Placement Paper computer engineering networking 2012

IOCL computer engineering questions with answers
1. Which layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment?



Switch
NIC
Hub
Repeater
RJ45 transceiver
A.1 only
B.1 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.5 only
Answer: Option D
Not that you really want to enlarge a single collision domain, but a hub (multiport repeater) will provide this for you.

2. Routers operate at layer _____. LAN switches operate at layer _____. Ethernet hubs operate at layer _____. Word processing operates at layer _____.
A.3, 3, 1, 7
B.3, 2, 1, none
C.3, 2, 1, 7
D.3, 3, 2, none

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Routers operate at layer 3. LAN switches operate at layer 2. Ethernet hubs operate at layer 1. Word processing applications communicate to the Application layer interface,
but do not operate at layer 7, so the answer would be none.

3. Which of the following describe router functions?
A.Packet switching
B.Packet filtering
C.Internetwork communication
D.Path selection
E.All of the above
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Routers provide packet switching, packet filtering, internetwork communication, and path selection.

4. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model?It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components,
thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting.
It enables equipment from different vendors to use the same electronic components, thus saving research and development funds.
It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards and thus provides business opportunities for equipment manufacturers.
It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model.
A.1 only
B.1 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.3 only

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The main advantage of a layered model is that it can allow application developers to change aspects of a program in just one layer of the layer model,s specifications. Advantages of using the OSI layered model include, but are not limited to, the following:
It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding compo- nent development, design, and troubleshooting;
it allows multiple-vendor development through standardization of network components;
it encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model;
it allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate;
and it prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers, so it does not hamper development.

5. A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A.Send a different source port number.
B.Restart the virtual circuit.
C.Decrease the sequence number.
D.Decrease the window size.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
A receiving host can control the transmitter by using flow control (TCP uses Windowing by default). By decreasing the window size, the receiving host can slow down the transmitting host so the receiving host does not overflow its buffers.
7. What is the purpose of flow control?
A.To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received.
B.To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C.To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D.To regulate the size of each segment.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Flow control allows the receiving device to control the transmitter so the receiving device,s buffer does not overflow.


8. Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network?There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
A.1, 2, and 5
B.2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.5 only

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Full-duplex means you are using both wire pairs simultaneously to send and receive data. You must have a dedicated switch port for each node, which means you will not have collisions. Both the host network card and the switch port must be capable and set to work in full-duplex mode.

9. Which of the following are types of flow control?Buffering
Cut-through
Windowing
Congestion avoidance
A.1 and 2
B.1, 3 and 4
C.2 only
D.3 only
The common types of flow control are buffering, windowing, and congestion avoidance.

10. What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?To add more broadcast domains.
To create more collision domains.
To add more bandwidth for users.
To allow more broadcasts for users.
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.2 and 4
D.4 only

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Bridges break up collision domains, which allow more bandwidth for users.

11. How does a host on an Ethernet LAN know when to transmit after a collision has occurred?In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.You can improve the CSMA/CD network by adding more hubs.After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2 and 5

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Once transmitting stations on an Ethernet segment hear a collision, they send an extended jam signal to ensure that all stations recognize the collision. After the jamming is complete, each sender waits a predetermined amount of time, plus a random time. After both timers expire, they are free to transmit, but they must make sure the media is clear before transmitting and that they all have equal priority.


12. Which of the following types of connections can use full duplex?
Hub to hub
Switch to switch
Host to host
Switch to hub
Switch to host
A.1, 2 and 4
B.3 and 4
C.3 and 5
D.2, 3 and 5

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Hubs cannot run full-duplex Ethernet. Full duplex must be used on a point-to-point connection between two devices capable of running full duplex. Switches and hosts can run full duplex between each other, but a hub can never run full duplex.

13. Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?
A.Layer 2
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 4
D.Layer 7
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A reliable Transport layer connection uses acknowledgments to make sure all data is transmitted and received reliably. A reliable connection is defined by a virtual circuit that uses acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control, which are characteristics of the Transport layer (layer 4).

14. Which fields are contained within an IEEE Ethernet frame header?Source and destination MAC address Source and destination network address Source and destination MAC address and source and destination network address FCS field

A. 1 and 4
B.2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D. 3 only

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
An Ethernet frame has source and destination MAC addresses, an Ether-Type field to identify the Network layer protocol, the data, and the FCS field that holds the answer to the CRC.


15. What type of RJ45 UTP cable do you use to connect a PC,s COM port to a router or switch console port?
A.Straight-through
B.Crossover cable
C.Crossover with a CSU/DSU
D.Rolled
Answer: Option B

To connect to a router or switch console port, you would use an RJ45 UTP rolled cable.

16. How to implement a network medium that is not susceptible to EMI. Which type of cabling should you use?
A.Thicknet coax
B.Thinnet coax
C.Category 5 UTP cable
D.Fiber-optic cable
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Fiber-optic cable provides a more secure, long-distance cable that is not susceptible to EMI interference at high speeds.

17. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?
A.Physical
B.Data Link
C.Network
D.Transport
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The Transport layer receives large data streams from the upper layers and breaks these up into smaller pieces called segments.

18. When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?
A.Data, frame, packet, segment, bit
B.Segment, data, packet, frame, bit
C.Data, segment, packet, frame, bit
D.Data, segment, frame, packet, bit
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The encapsulation method is data, segment, packet, frame, bit.

19. Which of the following are unique characteristics of half-duplex Ethernet when compared to full-duplex Ethernet?Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain.
Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private collision domain.
Half-duplex Ethernet has higher effective throughput.
Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective throughput.
A.2 only
B.1,2 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.4 only
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Unlike full duplex, half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain, and it has a lower effective throughput than full duplex.

20. What type of RJ45 UTP cable is used between switches?
A.Straight-through
B.Crossover cable
C.Crossover with a CSU/DSU
D.Crossover with a router in between the two switches
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
To connect two switches together, you would use a RJ45 UTP crossover cable.

IOCL Placement Paper : IOCL PLACEMENT PAPER

Paper Submited By Sheetal

Section one: (100 Questions)

General Aptitude.

English



Antonym

Synonym

Sentance Complition

Reading Comprihension

General Knowledge



Maths



Equation

Percentage

Interest

Speed and time

and some basic maths



Section two: (100 Questions)



Discipline Wise Questions

Questions on

Binary Tree

Stack & Queue concept

GateS (AND OR NAND NOR XOR...)

Operation system fundamentals ( stress on diff algorithms)

Data structure basics

C funda

Hit ratio, Page fault, seek time and other computer architech. fundamentals

Compilar construction


IOCL PLACEMENT PAPER - 2


13.j=4

for(int i=0;i<5;i++)

{

j++;

++j;

}

output of j.

ans:14



9.char s1[20]="hello world";

s1[5]="\0";







printf("%d",strlen(s1));

printf("%%.%...(not clear)",s1);

}

ans:bad format specifier



14.brace { used in c for what ans:convention



15.parameters in c passed by ans:value.



16.when an array is passed it is by ans:pointer.



17.scanf can read ans:any data type



18.which cant be passed to subroutine.ans:preprocessor directive.



19.to get string of words..ans:gets()



20.external variables can be accesed ans:in functions which use them.





analytical:



1.cat->satc

dear->seard



sing->sings



3.1999 july 21st friday

1947 july 21st ?

ans:two days before.



4.2,12,30,56,
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